Mock-Test CPD-III C-6 IT Audit

 

C-6 Information Systems Audit (CPD-III)

20 Questions | 20 Minutes | 20 Marks

Advanced Practice Mock Test · Effective from 2021 Exam

Enter Your Name * Enter Your City *

Choose one answer for each question. You can move between questions using the navigation buttons or question numbers.

Question 1 of 20 20:00

Test Completed

Submitting your result to the test record...

Read More →

October 09, 2026

CPD, Mock Test

🔥 Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE 🚀

✅ The Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 -100 MCQs

---

1. The Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on:
   A) Indian Penal Code
   B) UNCITRAL Model Law
   C) CPC
   D) Evidence Act
   Answer: B
2. Arbitration means:
   A) Court trial
   B) Private dispute resolution
   C) Criminal trial
   D) Mediation only
   Answer: B
3. Arbitration agreement is defined under:
   A) Sec 2
   B) Sec 7
   C) Sec 9
   D) Sec 11
   Answer: B
4. Arbitration agreement must be:
   A) Oral
   B) Written
   C) Implied
   D) Verbal
   Answer: B
5. Arbitration clause is part of:
   A) Award
   B) Contract
   C) Judgment
   D) Appeal
   Answer: B
6. Number of arbitrators is:
   A) Always one
   B) Always three
   C) As agreed by parties
   D) Fixed by court
   Answer: C
7. If parties fail to appoint arbitrator, appointment is made by:
   A) Police
   B) Court
   C) Government
   D) Auditor
   Answer: B
8. Arbitration proceedings commence under:
   A) Sec 20
   B) Sec 21
   C) Sec 22
   D) Sec 23
   Answer: B
9. Seat of arbitration determines:
   A) Language
   B) Jurisdiction
   C) Arbitrator
   D) Cost
   Answer: B
10. Arbitration agreement survives:
    A) Contract termination
    B) Contract execution
    C) Payment
    D) Delivery
    Answer: A
11. Arbitrator must be:
    A) Biased
    B) Independent
    C) Government official
    D) Lawyer only
    Answer: B
12. Independence of arbitrator ensures:
    A) Bias
    B) Fairness
    C) Delay
    D) Secrecy
    Answer: B
13. Challenge to arbitrator is under:
    A) Sec 12
    B) Sec 13
    C) Sec 14
    D) Sec 15
    Answer: B
14. Grounds of challenge include:
    A) Bias
    B) Delay
    C) Cost
    D) Payment
    Answer: A
15. Arbitrator can be removed if:
    A) Delay
    B) Incapacity
    C) Payment issue
    D) Delivery
    Answer: B
16. Substitute arbitrator is appointed under:
    A) Sec 15
    B) Sec 16
    C) Sec 17
    D) Sec 18
    Answer: A
17. Arbitral tribunal includes:
    A) Judge
    B) Arbitrator(s)
    C) Police
    D) Auditor
    Answer: B
18. Competence of tribunal is under:
    A) Sec 16
    B) Sec 17
    C) Sec 18
    D) Sec 19
    Answer: A
19. Tribunal can rule on:
    A) Jurisdiction
    B) Cost
    C) Payment
    D) Delivery
    Answer: A
20. Arbitration is:
    A) Public
    B) Private
    C) Criminal
    D) Administrative
    Answer: B
21. Party autonomy means:
    A) Court control
    B) Freedom of parties
    C) Government control
    D) Auditor control
    Answer: B
22. Arbitration agreement may be:
    A) Separate
    B) Clause
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
23. Written agreement includes:
    A) Emails
    B) Letters
    C) Electronic records
    D) All
    Answer: D
24. Arbitration avoids:
    A) Delay
    B) Litigation
    C) Cost
    D) All
    Answer: B
25. Arbitration is binding:
    A) No
    B) Yes
    C) Optional
    D) Partial
    Answer: B

---

26. Procedure is governed by:
    A) Court
    B) Parties
    C) Police
    D) Auditor
    Answer: B
27. Tribunal is not bound by:
    A) CPC
    B) Evidence Act
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
28. Equal treatment of parties is under:
    A) Sec 18
    B) Sec 19
    C) Sec 20
    D) Sec 21
    Answer: A
29. Place of arbitration is under:
    A) Sec 20
    B) Sec 21
    C) Sec 22
    D) Sec 23
    Answer: A
30. Language of arbitration is under:
    A) Sec 21
    B) Sec 22
    C) Sec 23
    D) Sec 24
    Answer: B
31. Statement of claim is under:
    A) Sec 23
    B) Sec 24
    C) Sec 25
    D) Sec 26
    Answer: A
32. Hearing is under:
    A) Sec 24
    B) Sec 25
    C) Sec 26
    D) Sec 27
    Answer: A
33. Default of party is under:
    A) Sec 25
    B) Sec 24
    C) Sec 23
    D) Sec 22
    Answer: A
34. Expert appointment is under:
    A) Sec 26
    B) Sec 27
    C) Sec 28
    D) Sec 29
    Answer: A
35. Court assistance in evidence is under:
    A) Sec 27
    B) Sec 26
    C) Sec 25
    D) Sec 24
    Answer: A
36. Rules of law applicable are under:
    A) Sec 28
    B) Sec 29
    C) Sec 30
    D) Sec 31
    Answer: A
37. Decision by majority is under:
    A) Sec 29
    B) Sec 30
    C) Sec 31
    D) Sec 32
    Answer: A
38. Settlement during arbitration is under:
    A) Sec 30
    B) Sec 29
    C) Sec 28
    D) Sec 27
    Answer: A
39. Form of award is under:
    A) Sec 31
    B) Sec 32
    C) Sec 33
    D) Sec 34
    Answer: A
40. Termination of proceedings is under:
    A) Sec 32
    B) Sec 31
    C) Sec 30
    D) Sec 29
    Answer: A
41. Correction of award is under:
    A) Sec 33
    B) Sec 34
    C) Sec 35
    D) Sec 36
    Answer: A
42. Finality of award is under:
    A) Sec 35
    B) Sec 36
    C) Sec 34
    D) Sec 33
    Answer: A
43. Enforcement of award is under:
    A) Sec 36
    B) Sec 35
    C) Sec 34
    D) Sec 33
    Answer: A
44. Interim measures by tribunal are under:
    A) Sec 17
    B) Sec 16
    C) Sec 15
    D) Sec 14
    Answer: A
45. Interim measures by court are under:
    A) Sec 9
    B) Sec 8
    C) Sec 7
    D) Sec 6
    Answer: A
46. Fast-track arbitration is under:
    A) Sec 29B
    B) Sec 29A
    C) Sec 30
    D) Sec 31
    Answer: A
47. Time limit for award is under:
    A) Sec 29A
    B) Sec 29B
    C) Sec 30
    D) Sec 31
    Answer: A
48. Costs are under:
    A) Sec 31A
    B) Sec 31
    C) Sec 30
    D) Sec 29
    Answer: A
49. Confidentiality is under:
    A) Sec 42A
    B) Sec 41
    C) Sec 40
    D) Sec 39
    Answer: A
50. Immunity of arbitrator is under:
    A) Sec 42B
    B) Sec 42A
    C) Sec 41
    D) Sec 40
    Answer: A

---

51. Arbitral award is:
    A) Judgment
    B) Decision of tribunal
    C) Order
    D) Decree
    Answer: B
52. Award must be:
    A) Oral
    B) Written
    C) Verbal
    D) Informal
    Answer: B
53. Award must state:
    A) Reasons
    B) Cost
    C) Arbitrator
    D) None
    Answer: A
54. Date and place must be in:
    A) Agreement
    B) Award
    C) Appeal
    D) Petition
    Answer: B
55. Award is final and binding under:
    A) Sec 35
    B) Sec 36
    C) Sec 34
    D) Sec 33
    Answer: A
56. Challenge to award is under:
    A) Sec 34
    B) Sec 35
    C) Sec 36
    D) Sec 33
    Answer: A
57. Grounds for setting aside include:
    A) Fraud
    B) Bias
    C) Public policy
    D) All
    Answer: D
58. Limitation for challenge is:
    A) 1 month
    B) 3 months
    C) 6 months
    D) 1 year
    Answer: B
59. Court cannot:
    A) Set aside
    B) Modify award
    C) Enforce
    D) Stay
    Answer: B
60. Enforcement of award is like:
    A) Contract
    B) Decree
    C) Order
    D) Judgment
    Answer: B
61. Foreign award is under:
    A) Part II
    B) Part I
    C) Part III
    D) Part IV
    Answer: A
62. New York Convention is for:
    A) Domestic award
    B) Foreign award
    C) Contract
    D) Arbitration
    Answer: B
63. Public policy includes:
    A) Fraud
    B) Corruption
    C) Justice
    D) All
    Answer: D
64. Patent illegality applies to:
    A) Domestic award
    B) Foreign award
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: A
65. Award can be corrected within:
    A) 30 days
    B) 60 days
    C) 90 days
    D) 120 days
    Answer: A
66. Interest on award is under:
    A) Sec 31
    B) Sec 30
    C) Sec 29
    D) Sec 28
    Answer: A
67. Costs follow:
    A) Loser
    B) Winner
    C) Court
    D) Arbitrator
    Answer: A
68. Tribunal can award:
    A) Interest
    B) Cost
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
69. Award becomes enforceable when:
    A) Passed
    B) Challenge period ends
    C) Filed
    D) Signed
    Answer: B
70. Stay of award requires:
    A) Filing
    B) Court order
    C) Payment
    D) Delivery
    Answer: B
71. Settlement award is under:
    A) Sec 30
    B) Sec 29
    C) Sec 28
    D) Sec 27
    Answer: A
72. Award must be signed by:
    A) All arbitrators
    B) Majority
    C) One
    D) Court
    Answer: B
73. Dissenting opinion is:
    A) Mandatory
    B) Optional
    C) Illegal
    D) Binding
    Answer: B
74. Award must be delivered to:
    A) Court
    B) Parties
    C) Government
    D) Auditor
    Answer: B
75. Partial award is:
    A) Invalid
    B) Valid
    C) Illegal
    D) Void
    Answer: B

---

76. Conciliation is under:
    A) Part III
    B) Part II
    C) Part I
    D) Part IV
    Answer: A
77. Conciliation is:
    A) Binding
    B) Non-binding
    C) Court process
    D) Arbitration
    Answer: B
78. Conciliator acts as:
    A) Judge
    B) Facilitator
    C) Arbitrator
    D) Lawyer
    Answer: B
79. Settlement agreement has status of:
    A) Contract
    B) Award
    C) Decree
    D) Order
    Answer: B
80. Conciliation starts with:
    A) Agreement
    B) Invitation
    C) Award
    D) Petition
    Answer: B
81. Conciliator is appointed by:
    A) Court
    B) Parties
    C) Government
    D) Auditor
    Answer: B
82. Confidentiality in conciliation is:
    A) Mandatory
    B) Optional
    C) Illegal
    D) Partial
    Answer: A
83. Conciliator cannot:
    A) Suggest
    B) Decide dispute
    C) Facilitate
    D) Negotiate
    Answer: B
84. Termination of conciliation occurs when:
    A) Settlement
    B) Withdrawal
    C) Declaration
    D) All
    Answer: D
85. Conciliation avoids:
    A) Cost
    B) Litigation
    C) Delay
    D) All
    Answer: D
86. Arbitration vs conciliation:
    A) Same
    B) Different
    C) Partial
    D) None
    Answer: B
87. Arbitration gives:
    A) Award
    B) Settlement
    C) Suggestion
    D) Advice
    Answer: A
88. Conciliation gives:
    A) Award
    B) Settlement
    C) Judgment
    D) Decree
    Answer: B
89. Institutional arbitration is:
    A) Ad hoc
    B) Organized
    C) Informal
    D) Illegal
    Answer: B
90. Ad hoc arbitration is:
    A) Institutional
    B) Party-managed
    C) Court
    D) Government
    Answer: B
91. Arbitration cost includes:
    A) Fees
    B) Expenses
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
92. Fast-track arbitration is:
    A) Slow
    B) Expedited
    C) Court
    D) Informal
    Answer: B
93. Interim relief protects:
    A) Rights
    B) Cost
    C) Delay
    D) Audit
    Answer: A
94. Seat vs venue:
    A) Same
    B) Different
    C) Partial
    D) None
    Answer: B
95. Lex arbitri means:
    A) Law of arbitration
    B) Contract law
    C) Criminal law
    D) Tax law
    Answer: A
96. Arbitration agreement is separable from:
    A) Award
    B) Contract
    C) Court
    D) Law
    Answer: B
97. Kompetenz-kompetenz means:
    A) Court power
    B) Tribunal decides jurisdiction
    C) Party power
    D) Government control
    Answer: B
98. Arbitration clause survives:
    A) Performance
    B) Termination
    C) Payment
    D) Delivery
    Answer: B
99. Court intervention is:
    A) Maximum
    B) Minimum
    C) Mandatory
    D) None
    Answer: B
100. Arbitration Act aims to:
     A) Increase litigation
     B) Promote ADR
     C) Delay
     D) Bias
     Answer: B

Read More →

April 10, 2026

Arbitration Act, CPD, CPD-1 (Paper-1)

🔥 Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE 🚀

✅Penalties & Debarment + Indian Contract Act, 1872 (100 MCQs)

---

1. A contract is defined under Section:
   A) 2(a)
   B) 2(h)
   C) 10
   D) 73
   Answer: B
2. An agreement enforceable by law is called:
   A) Promise
   B) Contract
   C) Offer
   D) Proposal
   Answer: B
3. Proposal is defined under:
   A) Sec 2(a)
   B) Sec 2(b)
   C) Sec 10
   D) Sec 73
   Answer: A
4. Acceptance is defined under:
   A) Sec 2(a)
   B) Sec 2(b)
   C) Sec 2(c)
   D) Sec 10
   Answer: B
5. Consideration is defined under:
   A) Sec 2(d)
   B) Sec 2(e)
   C) Sec 10
   D) Sec 73
   Answer: A
6. Void agreement is defined under:
   A) Sec 2(g)
   B) Sec 2(h)
   C) Sec 10
   D) Sec 73
   Answer: A
7. Voidable contract is defined under:
   A) Sec 2(i)
   B) Sec 2(g)
   C) Sec 10
   D) Sec 73
   Answer: A
8. Essentials of valid contract include:
   A) Agreement + enforceability
   B) Offer only
   C) Acceptance only
   D) Writing only
   Answer: A
9. Free consent includes:
   A) Coercion
   B) Undue influence
   C) Absence of coercion
   D) Fraud
   Answer: C
10. Competency to contract is defined under:
    A) Sec 10
    B) Sec 11
    C) Sec 12
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: B
11. Minor’s agreement is:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Voidable
    D) Illegal
    Answer: B
12. Consideration must be:
    A) Past only
    B) Present only
    C) Lawful
    D) Monetary only
    Answer: C
13. Agreement without consideration is:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
14. Consent is defined under:
    A) Sec 13
    B) Sec 14
    C) Sec 10
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: A
15. Free consent is defined under:
    A) Sec 13
    B) Sec 14
    C) Sec 11
    D) Sec 10
    Answer: B
16. Coercion is defined under:
    A) Sec 15
    B) Sec 16
    C) Sec 17
    D) Sec 18
    Answer: A
17. Undue influence is under:
    A) Sec 15
    B) Sec 16
    C) Sec 17
    D) Sec 18
    Answer: B
18. Fraud is defined under:
    A) Sec 17
    B) Sec 18
    C) Sec 19
    D) Sec 20
    Answer: A
19. Misrepresentation is under:
    A) Sec 18
    B) Sec 17
    C) Sec 19
    D) Sec 20
    Answer: A
20. Mistake is covered under:
    A) Sec 20–22
    B) Sec 10
    C) Sec 15
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: A
21. Lawful object is required under:
    A) Sec 23
    B) Sec 24
    C) Sec 10
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: A
22. Agreement opposed to public policy is:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Voidable
    D) Illegal
    Answer: B
23. Wagering agreements are:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
24. Contingent contract is defined under:
    A) Sec 31
    B) Sec 32
    C) Sec 10
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: A
25. Performance of contract is under:
    A) Sec 37
    B) Sec 10
    C) Sec 73
    D) Sec 2
    Answer: A

---

26. Breach of contract leads to:
    A) Performance
    B) Remedy
    C) Discharge
    D) All
    Answer: D
27. Compensation for breach is under:
    A) Sec 73
    B) Sec 74
    C) Sec 75
    D) Sec 10
    Answer: A
28. Liquidated damages are covered under:
    A) Sec 73
    B) Sec 74
    C) Sec 75
    D) Sec 10
    Answer: B
29. Penalty clause is under:
    A) Sec 74
    B) Sec 73
    C) Sec 75
    D) Sec 10
    Answer: A
30. Quantum meruit means:
    A) Equal payment
    B) Reasonable payment
    C) Fixed payment
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
31. Anticipatory breach occurs:
    A) After due date
    B) Before due date
    C) During performance
    D) After completion
    Answer: B
32. Actual breach occurs:
    A) Before performance
    B) At due date
    C) After termination
    D) Before agreement
    Answer: B
33. Specific performance is:
    A) Compensation
    B) Court order to perform
    C) Penalty
    D) Arbitration
    Answer: B
34. Rescission means:
    A) Continuation
    B) Cancellation
    C) Performance
    D) Payment
    Answer: B
35. Injunction is:
    A) Order to perform
    B) Order to stop
    C) Compensation
    D) Penalty
    Answer: B
36. Damages must be:
    A) Remote
    B) Direct
    C) Speculative
    D) Arbitrary
    Answer: B
37. Remote damages are:
    A) Recoverable
    B) Not recoverable
    C) Mandatory
    D) Fixed
    Answer: B
38. Mitigation of damages means:
    A) Increase loss
    B) Reduce loss
    C) Ignore loss
    D) Transfer loss
    Answer: B
39. Contract discharged by impossibility is under:
    A) Sec 56
    B) Sec 73
    C) Sec 74
    D) Sec 10
    Answer: A
40. Frustration of contract leads to:
    A) Continuation
    B) Discharge
    C) Penalty
    D) Payment
    Answer: B
41. Novation means:
    A) Cancellation
    B) Substitution
    C) Performance
    D) Delay
    Answer: B
42. Alteration of contract requires:
    A) One party
    B) Mutual consent
    C) Court order
    D) Arbitration
    Answer: B
43. Waiver means:
    A) Enforcement
    B) Abandonment of rights
    C) Penalty
    D) Payment
    Answer: B
44. Remission is:
    A) Increase obligation
    B) Reduction of obligation
    C) Cancellation
    D) Payment
    Answer: B
45. Breach gives right to:
    A) Compensation
    B) Performance
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
46. Damages aim to:
    A) Punish
    B) Compensate
    C) Reward
    D) Delay
    Answer: B
47. Exemplary damages are:
    A) Punitive
    B) Compensatory
    C) Nominal
    D) Liquidated
    Answer: A
48. Nominal damages are:
    A) High
    B) Small
    C) Punitive
    D) Fixed
    Answer: B
49. Consequential damages are:
    A) Direct
    B) Indirect
    C) Nominal
    D) Fixed
    Answer: B
50. Breach of warranty gives:
    A) Rejection
    B) Damages
    C) Specific performance
    D) Cancellation
    Answer: B

---

51. Debarment means:
    A) Promotion
    B) Blacklisting
    C) Payment
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
52. Debarment is imposed for:
    A) Good performance
    B) Misconduct
    C) Audit
    D) Payment
    Answer: B
53. Blacklisting affects:
    A) One contract
    B) Future participation
    C) Payment
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
54. Grounds for debarment include:
    A) Transparency
    B) Fraud
    C) Efficiency
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
55. Debarment must follow:
    A) Secrecy
    B) Due process
    C) Delay
    D) Bias
    Answer: B
56. Show cause notice is issued before:
    A) Payment
    B) Debarment
    C) Audit
    D) Delivery
    Answer: B
57. Natural justice requires:
    A) No hearing
    B) Opportunity to be heard
    C) Delay
    D) Bias
    Answer: B
58. Debarment period is:
    A) Permanent always
    B) Time-bound
    C) One day
    D) Optional
    Answer: B
59. Fraud includes:
    A) Transparency
    B) Misrepresentation
    C) Audit
    D) Compliance
    Answer: B
60. Corrupt practice includes:
    A) Bribery
    B) Transparency
    C) Audit
    D) Compliance
    Answer: A
61. Collusion means:
    A) Competition
    B) Secret agreement
    C) Audit
    D) Compliance
    Answer: B
62. Coercive practice includes:
    A) Threat
    B) Transparency
    C) Audit
    D) Compliance
    Answer: A
63. Unfair practice leads to:
    A) Reward
    B) Penalty
    C) Promotion
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
64. Debarment list is maintained by:
    A) Supplier
    B) Authority
    C) Court
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
65. Cross-debarment means:
    A) Same authority
    B) Multiple agencies
    C) Single contract
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
66. Debarment decision must be:
    A) Arbitrary
    B) Reasoned
    C) Biased
    D) Secret
    Answer: B
67. Appeal against debarment lies with:
    A) Supplier
    B) Higher authority
    C) Audit
    D) Court only
    Answer: B
68. Suspension differs from debarment as:
    A) Permanent
    B) Temporary
    C) Same
    D) Illegal
    Answer: B
69. Penalty clause ensures:
    A) Delay
    B) Compliance
    C) Bias
    D) Secrecy
    Answer: B
70. Liquidated damages are:
    A) Reward
    B) Pre-estimated loss
    C) Penalty
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
71. Performance guarantee ensures:
    A) Payment
    B) Contract performance
    C) Audit
    D) Delivery
    Answer: B
72. Forfeiture of security is:
    A) Reward
    B) Penalty
    C) Payment
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
73. Debarment affects:
    A) Past contracts
    B) Future contracts
    C) Payment
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
74. Procurement penalties ensure:
    A) Compliance
    B) Delay
    C) Bias
    D) Secrecy
    Answer: A
75. Debarment promotes:
    A) Corruption
    B) Discipline
    C) Delay
    D) Bias
    Answer: B

---

76. Contract of indemnity is under:
    A) Sec 124
    B) Sec 125
    C) Sec 126
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: A
77. Contract of guarantee is under:
    A) Sec 126
    B) Sec 124
    C) Sec 125
    D) Sec 73
    Answer: A
78. Bailment is under:
    A) Sec 148
    B) Sec 149
    C) Sec 150
    D) Sec 151
    Answer: A
79. Finder of goods has rights of:
    A) Bailee
    B) Bailor
    C) Owner
    D) Agent
    Answer: A
80. Agency is under:
    A) Sec 182
    B) Sec 183
    C) Sec 184
    D) Sec 185
    Answer: A
81. Agent binds:
    A) Himself
    B) Principal
    C) Third party
    D) Court
    Answer: B
82. Ratification relates to:
    A) Past act approval
    B) Future act
    C) Present act
    D) Court order
    Answer: A
83. Sub-agent is appointed by:
    A) Principal
    B) Agent
    C) Court
    D) Third party
    Answer: B
84. Consideration may move from:
    A) Promisee only
    B) Any person
    C) Promisor only
    D) Court
    Answer: B
85. Privity of contract applies to:
    A) Third party
    B) Parties only
    C) Court
    D) Agent
    Answer: B
86. Agreement in restraint of trade is:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
87. Agreement in restraint of marriage is:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
88. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is:
    A) Valid
    B) Void
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
89. Time is essence of contract when:
    A) Mentioned
    B) Not mentioned
    C) Ignored
    D) Arbitrary
    Answer: A
90. Reciprocal promises are under:
    A) Sec 51
    B) Sec 52
    C) Sec 53
    D) Sec 54
    Answer: A
91. Joint liability is under:
    A) Sec 42
    B) Sec 43
    C) Sec 44
    D) Sec 45
    Answer: B
92. Discharge by agreement includes:
    A) Novation
    B) Alteration
    C) Rescission
    D) All
    Answer: D
93. Quasi contracts are:
    A) Real contracts
    B) Implied by law
    C) Void
    D) Illegal
    Answer: B
94. Supply of necessaries to minor is:
    A) Void
    B) Recoverable
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
95. Finder of lost goods can:
    A) Sue owner
    B) Retain goods
    C) Sell goods
    D) All
    Answer: D
96. Agency terminates by:
    A) Death
    B) Insanity
    C) Completion
    D) All
    Answer: D
97. Consideration must not be:
    A) Lawful
    B) Illegal
    C) Valuable
    D) Real
    Answer: B
98. Agreement without free consent is:
    A) Valid
    B) Voidable
    C) Illegal
    D) Enforceable
    Answer: B
99. Contract becomes void when:
    A) Impossible
    B) Valid
    C) Enforceable
    D) Binding
    Answer: A
100. Indian Contract Act, 1872 governs:
     A) Criminal law
     B) Civil obligations
     C) Tax law
     D) Property law
     Answer: B

Read More →

April 10, 2026

CPD, CPD-1 (Paper-1), Public Procurement