12 August 2026
APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2024
APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAMINATION, 2024
SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100
Note:
Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.
Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any four of the remaining questions.
QUESTION 1 — 20 Marks
From the following Trial Balance of ABCD Ltd. and additional information, prepare the Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended 31st March 2017.
| Particulars | Debit (₹) | Credit (₹) |
|---|---|---|
| Plant and Machinery | 1,30,000 | — |
| Debtors | 50,000 | — |
| Creditors | — | 2,50,000 |
| Interest | 2,000 | — |
| Wages | 1,200 | — |
| Salaries | 2,500 | — |
| Carriage Inwards | 500 | — |
| Carriage Outwards | 700 | — |
| Returns Inwards | 2,000 | — |
| Returns Outwards | — | 2,500 |
| Factory Rent | 1,450 | — |
| Office Rent | 2,300 | — |
| Insurance Expense | 780 | — |
| Furniture | 22,500 | — |
| Buildings | 2,80,000 | — |
| Bills Payable | — | 70,000 |
| Provision for Bad Debts | — | 1,550 |
| Bills Receivable | 3,000 | — |
| Cash in Hand | 22,500 | — |
| Cash in Bank | 35,000 | — |
| Capital | — | 2,20,000 |
| Commission | 500 | — |
| Opening Stock | 60,000 | — |
| Purchases | 2,50,000 | — |
| Sales | — | 3,00,000 |
| Rent Received | — | 10,380 |
| Bad Debts | 3,500 | — |
| Commission Received | — | 16,000 |
Additional Information:
Provision for Bad Debts is to be maintained at 5% and further bad debts amount to ₹2,000.
Rent received in advance is ₹6,000.
Prepaid Insurance is ₹200.
Depreciation is to be provided as follows:
Furniture @ 5%
Plant and Machinery @ 6%
Buildings @ 7%
QUESTION 2 — 20 Marks
Write short notes on any four of the following:
Promissory Note
Accrual Accounting
Sinking Fund
Reserve for Bad Debts
Intangible Assets
Debentures
(4 × 5 = 20 Marks)
QUESTION 3 — 20 Marks
Differentiate between any four of the following:
Journal and Ledger
Revenue Reserve and Capital Reserve
Trade Discount and Cash Discount
Loan and Overdraft
Dividend and Interest
Authorised Capital and Issued Capital
(4 × 5 = 20 Marks)
QUESTION 4 — 20 Marks
What are Subsidiary Books? What are the advantages of maintaining them? Briefly describe the different types of Subsidiary Books.
(20 Marks)
QUESTION 5
(a) Define Current Assets. Give five examples.
(10 Marks)
(b) What do Fixed Capital and Functional Capital mean?
(10 Marks)
QUESTION 6
(a) What is the difference between Single Entry System and Double Entry System?
(7 Marks)
(b) What is a Partnership Deed? Briefly explain its important clauses.
(8 Marks)
(c) What is Goodwill?
(5 Marks)
QUESTION 7
(a) What is the significance of a Bank Reconciliation Statement?
(5 Marks)
(b) From the following particulars, prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31st March 2014.
(15 Marks)
Balance as per Cash Book is ₹10,000 and balance as per Pass Book is ₹13,529.
A cheque for ₹1,000 was deposited but not recorded in the Cash Book.
A cash deposit of ₹200 was made but was not recorded in the bank column.
A cheque issued for ₹250 was not recorded.
The debit balance of ₹1,500 as on the previous day was brought forward as a credit balance.
The payment side of the Cash Book was undercast by ₹100.
A cash discount allowed of ₹112 was recorded as ₹121 in the bank column.
A cheque of ₹500 received from a debtor was recorded in the Cash Book but was not deposited in the bank for collection.
One outgoing cheque of ₹300 was recorded twice in the Cash Book.
***************
APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2022
APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAMINATION, 2022
SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100
Instructions
Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.
Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any five of the remaining questions. Thus, a total of six questions are to be attempted.
QUESTION 1 — 25 Marks
Prepare a Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended 31st March 2022 from the following Trial Balance of ABC Ltd. as at 31st March 2022 and the additional information provided below:
| Particulars | Debit (₹) | Credit (₹) |
|---|---|---|
| ABC Ltd.'s Capital Account | — | 2,60,000 |
| ABC Ltd.'s Drawings Account | 36,000 | — |
| Lease of Warehouse (10 Years to run from 1st April 2021) | 55,000 | — |
| Stock, 1st April 2021 | 2,65,000 | — |
| Bills Receivable | 47,000 | — |
| Sales | — | 14,45,000 |
| XYZ Ltd.'s Loan Account | 36,000 | — |
| Purchases | 7,35,000 | — |
| Creditors | — | 3,95,000 |
| Salaries and Wages | 62,000 | — |
| Insurance | 5,000 | — |
| Debtors | 6,65,000 | — |
| Carriage Inwards | 17,500 | — |
| Carriage Outwards | 30,000 | — |
| Commission | 15,000 | — |
| Interest | 19,000 | — |
| Stationery & Printing | 5,500 | — |
| Bills Payable | — | 66,500 |
| Returns Inwards | 27,500 | — |
| Returns Outwards | — | 25,000 |
| Trade Expenses | 6,500 | — |
| Office Fixtures | 20,000 | — |
| Cash in Office | 6,500 | — |
| Cash at Bank | 1,17,000 | — |
| Rent and Taxes | 21,000 | — |
| Total | 21,91,500 | 21,91,500 |
Additional Information
The stock on 31st March 2022 was ₹3,15,000.
₹5,500 for rent and ₹5,500 for salaries were outstanding.
₹1,500 was prepaid in respect of insurance.
The lease is to be written off by 10 percent.
Office fixtures are to be depreciated by 5 percent.
QUESTION 2 — 15 Marks
Write short notes on any three of the following:
Advantages of Double Entry System
Bills Payable
Sinking Fund
Promissory Note
(5 × 3 = 15 Marks)
QUESTION 3
(a) Classify the following into Personal Accounts, Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts:
(1 × 7 = 7 Marks)
Building
Carriage Inwards
Commission Received
Bank Account
Mr. Rao's Account
Salary Account of Mohan
Goodwill Account
(b) What is Doubtful Debt and why does Doubtful Debt occur? Describe Reserve for Doubtful Debts.
(4 + 4 = 8 Marks)
QUESTION 4
(a) State the need for preparation of a Bank Reconciliation Statement.
(5 Marks)
(b) XYZ Ltd. has a difference in the balance as per Cash Book and Bank Statement as on 31st March 2022. Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on that date with the following information:
(10 Marks)
Balance as per Pass Book as on 31st March 2022 is ₹87,000. Balance as per Cash Book is ₹78,000.
A cheque of ₹30,000 was deposited in the bank on 30th March 2022, but has not yet been credited.
A cheque of ₹15,000 was issued but has not yet been presented for payment.
An insurance premium of ₹20,000 was paid by the bank.
Bank interest of ₹4,000 was credited by the bank but was not recorded in the Cash Book.
₹40,000 was deposited directly into the bank by the customer.
QUESTION 5 — 15 Marks
Differentiate between any three of the following:
Cash Discount and Trade Discount
Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure
Assets and Liabilities
Journal and Ledger
(5 × 3 = 15 Marks)
QUESTION 6
(a) Distinguish between Revenue Reserve and Capital Reserve. Give three examples each of Revenue Reserves and Capital Reserves.
(4 + 3 = 7 Marks)
(b) Define Fixed Assets. How should Fixed Assets be valued in a Balance Sheet?
(3 + 5 = 8 Marks)
QUESTION 7 — 15 Marks
What is depreciation? What is the need for providing depreciation? Enumerate the several methods (minimum five) of providing for depreciation and explain any one method with an example.
(3 + 4 + 8 = 15 Marks)
QUESTION 8
(a) Describe the purpose of preparing a Trial Balance. Explain errors of principle and give one example with measures to rectify the error.
(4 + 6 = 10 Marks)
(b) Explain the terms Gross Profit and Net Profit.
(5 Marks)
QUESTION 9
(a) State the meaning of "Outstanding Expenses" and "Accrued Income".
(5 Marks)
(b) Discuss the advantages secured by the preparation of a Trading Account.
(5 Marks)
(c) Explain the functions of the Petty Cash Book.
(5 Marks)
***************
APPENDIX-IIA- ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2021
NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY
APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAM, 2021
SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING
Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 3 Hours
Note:
Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.
Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any five of the remaining questions. Total six questions are to be attempted.
QUESTION 1 — 25 Marks
Prepare Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended on 31st March 2021 from the following Trial Balance of ABC Ltd. as at 31st March 2021 and additional information provided below:
| Particulars | Debit (₹) | Credit (₹) |
|---|---|---|
| ABC Ltd.'s Capital Account | — | 2,50,000 |
| ABC Ltd.'s Drawings Account | 28,000 | — |
| Lease of Warehouse (10 Years to run from 1st April 2020) | 50,000 | — |
| Stock, 1st April 2020 | 2,50,000 | — |
| Bills Receivable | 40,000 | — |
| Sales | — | 14,00,000 |
| XYZ Ltd.'s Loan Account | 30,000 | — |
| Purchases | 7,50,000 | — |
| Creditors | — | 4,00,000 |
| Salaries and Wages | 60,000 | — |
| Insurance | 4,000 | — |
| Debtors | 6,50,000 | — |
| Carriage Inwards | 17,000 | — |
| Carriage Outwards | 29,000 | — |
| Commission | 15,000 | — |
| Interest | 18,000 | — |
| Stationery & Printing | 5,000 | — |
| Bills Payable | — | 63,000 |
| Returns Inwards | 26,000 | — |
| Returns Outwards | — | 10,000 |
| Trade Expenses | 6,000 | — |
| Office Fixtures | 20,000 | — |
| Cash in Office | 5,000 | — |
| Cash at Bank | 1,00,000 | — |
| Rent and Taxes | 20,000 | — |
| Total | 21,23,000 | 21,23,000 |
Additional Information:
The stock on 31st March 2021 was ₹3,00,000.
₹4,000 for rent and ₹6,000 for salaries were outstanding.
₹1,000 was paid in advance in respect of insurance.
The lease is to be written off by 10 percent.
Office fixtures are to be depreciated by 5 percent.
QUESTION 2 — 15 Marks
Write short notes on any three of the following:
(i) Objectives of Book Keeping
(ii) Bill of Exchange
(iii) Reducing Balance Method of Depreciation
(iv) Analytical Petty Cash Book
QUESTION 3
(a) Give four examples each of Personal Accounts, Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts.
(6 Marks)
(b) Anand is a trader dealing in textiles. For the following transactions, pass journal entries for the month of January 2021.
(1.5 × 6 = 9 Marks)
Purchased goods from X and Co. on credit — ₹30,000
Bought a building from Y and Co. on credit — ₹95,000
Cash withdrawn from bank for office use — ₹5,000
Towels given to charities — ₹3,000
Sarees distributed as free samples — ₹3,000
Goods (table clothes) used for office use — ₹200
QUESTION 4 — 15 Marks
XYZ Ltd. has a difference in the balance as per Cash Book and Bank Statement as on 31st March 2021. You are advised to prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on that date with the following information:
Balance as per Bank Statement as on 31st March 2021 is ₹40,000. Balance as per Cash Book is ₹14,000.
Cheques of ₹10,000 and ₹5,000 issued on 30th March 2021, but not yet cleared.
An insurance premium paid by bank ₹2,000. It is not yet recorded in Cash Book.
An outgoing cheque of ₹20,000 recorded twice in the Cash Book. It is properly recorded in the bank statement.
Payment of a cheque of ₹4,000 recorded twice in Pass Book.
Dividends received ₹5,000 recorded only in the bank statement and not in the Cash Book.
Cheque of ₹7,000 deposited on 29th March 2021, but it is not yet collected.
Bank charges of ₹1,000 debited only in Bank Pass Book.
QUESTION 5 — 15 Marks
Differentiate between any three of the following:
(i) Cash Discount and Trade Discount
(ii) Reserve Fund and Reserve Account
(iii) Fixed Assets and Floating Assets
(iv) Opening Entries and Closing Entries
QUESTION 6
(a) What do you understand by Prepaid Expenses? Explain with an example.
(5 Marks)
(b) Explain what you understand by Bad Debts and Doubtful Debts. What entries would you pass to write off Bad Debts?
(7 + 3 = 10 Marks)
QUESTION 7
(a) Mention the different ways in which a bill can be endorsed, and state clearly the effect of each endorsement.
(11 Marks)
(b) What do you understand by a Promissory Note?
(4 Marks)
QUESTION 8 — 15 Marks
What is a Trial Balance? Mention the different classes of errors, the presence of which would prevent a Trial Balance from agreeing. What type of errors does a Trial Balance fail to disclose?
(4 + 5 + 6 = 15 Marks)
QUESTION 9
(a) What purpose does a Balance Sheet serve?
(5 Marks)
(b) Explain Deferred Revenue Expenditure.
(5 Marks)
(c) What do you understand by Noting and Protesting in relation to dishonouring of bills?
(5 Marks)
27 April 2026
✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – 150 PRACTICAL MCQs (NUMERICAL + CASE BASED)
✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – 50 PRACTICAL MCQs (NUMERICAL + CASE BASED)
Q1. A passenger travels 600 km in Sleeper Class. Fare is calculated based on:
A. Actual distance
B. Rounded distance slabs
C. Weight
D. Time
Q2. Luggage exceeding free allowance is charged based on:
A. Distance only
B. Weight or measurement whichever higher
C. Volume only
D. Flat rate
Q3. A parcel weighs 80 kg but volumetric weight is 120 kg. Chargeable weight:
A. 80 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 120 kg
D. 200 kg
Q4. Minimum chargeable weight for parcels is:
A. 1 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 10 kg
D. 20 kg
Q5. Parcel rate tables are provided in:
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q6. A package weighing 8 kg will be charged as:
A. 8 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 1 kg
Q7. If luggage exceeds prescribed size, it is treated as:
A. Free luggage
B. Parcel
C. Scrap
D. Goods
Q8. Free luggage allowance depends on:
A. Distance
B. Class of travel
C. Weight
D. Train speed
Q9. If actual weight < volumetric weight, then:
A. Ignore
B. Use actual
C. Use higher
D. Average
Q10. Parcel charges are based on:
A. Distance + weight
B. Weight only
C. Time
D. Class
Q11. A 50 kg parcel travels 500 km under Scale R. Charges depend on:
A. Scale rate
B. Passenger fare
C. GST
D. Discount
Q12. Wharfage charges are levied for:
A. Delay in booking
B. Delay in removal
C. Delay in train
D. Refund
Q13. Demurrage applies when:
A. Parcel delayed in godown
B. Wagon detained
C. Passenger delayed
D. Ticket cancelled
Q14. A parcel not collected within free time attracts:
A. Fine
B. Wharfage
C. Demurrage
D. Penalty
Q15. Animals are charged as:
A. Parcel
B. Passenger
C. Special rate
D. Free
Q16. A dog accompanying passenger is charged as:
A. Free
B. Parcel rate
C. Special dog rate
D. Luggage
Q17. A bicycle is charged under:
A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Free
Q18. Motor car transport charges are given in:
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q19. A car weighing 1000 kg is charged based on:
A. Weight
B. Prescribed rate
C. Distance
D. Both B & C
Q20. If parcel is defectively packed:
A. Accepted normally
B. Rejected or booked at owner’s risk
C. Free
D. Ignored
Q21. Owner’s risk rate is:
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Free
Q22. Railway risk rate is:
A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Double
Q23. If value declared, risk rate is:
A. Reduced
B. Increased
C. Same
D. Ignored
Q24. Parcel booking requires:
A. Invoice
B. Forwarding note
C. Ticket
D. GST
Q25. Chargeable distance includes:
A. Actual route
B. Shortest route
C. Approved route
D. All
Q26. A parcel booked for 1200 km but charged for 1000 km → reason:
A. Error
B. Shortest route applied
C. Discount
D. Special train
Q27. Scale P is used for:
A. Express parcels
B. Ordinary parcels
C. Special goods
D. Animals
Q28. Scale S applies to:
A. Luggage
B. Special parcels
C. Animals
D. Scrap
Q29. Minimum parcel charge is based on:
A. 10 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 1 kg
Q30. Parcel rate increases with:
A. Distance
B. Weight
C. Both
D. None
Q31. A parcel booked as luggage but exceeds size →
A. Accepted
B. Converted to parcel
C. Free
D. Ignored
Q32. Dangerous goods booking requires:
A. Declaration
B. Permission
C. Special packing
D. All
Q33. Explosives are governed under:
A. Red Tariff
B. Green Tariff
C. Blue Tariff
D. None
Q34. If wrong declaration made:
A. No action
B. Penalty
C. Refund
D. Discount
Q35. Booking of parcels is done through:
A. Ticket
B. Waybill
C. Invoice
D. Receipt
Q36. Luggage booked separately is treated as:
A. Free
B. Parcel
C. Special
D. Goods
Q37. A parcel weighing 15 kg is charged as:
A. 15 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 5 kg
Q38. If weight not available, charge is based on:
A. Estimate
B. Measurement
C. Guess
D. Ignore
Q39. Measurement converted to weight using:
A. Formula
B. Table
C. Guess
D. Average
Q40. Parcel delivery requires:
A. Receipt
B. Identity
C. Payment
D. All
Q41. Concessions are given under:
A. Part I Vol II
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q42. Student concession requires:
A. ID
B. Certificate
C. Ticket
D. All
Q43. Military concession allows:
A. Free travel
B. Reduced fare
C. No fare
D. Double fare
Q44. Combined ticket luggage allowance:
A. Lower class
B. Higher class
C. Average
D. None
Q45. Refund rules are in:
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. None
Q46. Parcel rate per 10 kg is shown in:
A. Part III
B. Part II
C. Part I
D. Part IV
Q47. A parcel 25 kg → charged as:
A. 20 kg
B. 25 kg
C. 30 kg
D. 10 kg
Q48. Special articles include:
A. Cars
B. Aeroplanes
C. Motorcycles
D. All
Q49. Parcel not removed → charged till:
A. Delivery
B. Disposal
C. Auction
D. All
Q50. IRCA Coaching Tariff ensures:
A. Uniform rules
B. Uniform rates
C. Standard procedures
D. All
✅ ANSWER KEY (1–50)
1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-C, 5-C
6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-C, 10-A
11-A, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-C
16-C, 17-C, 18-D, 19-D, 20-B
21-B, 22-B, 23-B, 24-B, 25-C
26-B, 27-A, 28-B, 29-A, 30-C
31-B, 32-D, 33-A, 34-B, 35-B
36-B, 37-C, 38-B, 39-A, 40-D
41-A, 42-B, 43-B, 44-B, 45-A
46-A, 47-C, 48-D, 49-D, 50-D
✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – ULTRA TOUGH MCQs (PART 1: Q1–50)
Q1. A parcel weighs 42 kg, volumetric weight = 55 kg. Charged weight?
A. 42 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 60 kg
Q2. Minimum chargeable weight rule applies as:
A. Exact weight
B. Next 5 kg
C. Next 10 kg
D. Nearest kg
Q3. A parcel 23 kg will be charged as:
A. 20 kg
B. 23 kg
C. 25 kg
D. 30 kg
Q4. If volumetric weight = 18 kg and actual = 21 kg → charge?
A. 18 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 21 kg
D. 25 kg
Q5. Parcel distance slab system ensures:
A. Exact km charging
B. Rounded km charging
C. Free km
D. Discount
Q6. A parcel booked 610 km is charged under:
A. Exact 610 km
B. Next slab
C. Previous slab
D. Average
Q7. Scale R is applicable for:
A. Urgent parcels
B. Ordinary parcels
C. Luggage
D. Animals
Q8. Scale P is applicable for:
A. Passenger luggage
B. Express parcels
C. Scrap
D. Animals
Q9. A parcel booked under Scale P costs higher because:
A. Faster service
B. Heavier
C. Longer distance
D. Special tax
Q10. If parcel declared value exceeds limit →
A. No effect
B. Pay percentage charge
C. Free
D. Reject
Q11. A parcel booked at Railway Risk vs Owner’s Risk difference is:
A. Speed
B. Liability
C. Distance
D. Weight
Q12. Railway Risk Rate is:
A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Double
Q13. Owner’s Risk Rate is chosen when:
A. High value
B. Low value
C. Heavy parcel
D. Long distance
Q14. If parcel is lost under Owner’s Risk →
A. Full compensation
B. Limited liability
C. No liability
D. Double refund
Q15. Wharfage is charged after:
A. Booking
B. Arrival
C. Free time expiry
D. Delivery
Q16. Free time for parcel delivery is generally:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
Q17. If parcel is removed after 48 hrs →
A. No charge
B. Wharfage
C. Demurrage
D. Penalty
Q18. Demurrage applies to:
A. Parcel
B. Wagon detention
C. Passenger
D. Ticket
Q19. A wagon detained beyond free time →
A. Wharfage
B. Demurrage
C. Penalty
D. Free
Q20. If both demurrage & wharfage apply →
A. Only one
B. Both
C. Higher
D. Lower
Q21. Luggage free allowance depends on:
A. Distance
B. Class
C. Time
D. Speed
Q22. Excess luggage is charged at:
A. Parcel rate
B. Luggage rate
C. Goods rate
D. Free
Q23. A suitcase exceeding size limit →
A. Allowed
B. Treated as parcel
C. Free
D. Ignored
Q24. A passenger carries 80 kg but free allowance = 40 kg → chargeable?
A. 40 kg
B. 80 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 60 kg
Q25. Excess luggage charge is based on:
A. Parcel scale
B. Special luggage rate
C. Goods rate
D. GST
Q26. Bicycle transported by train is treated as:
A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Free
Q27. Motor car transport is charged based on:
A. Weight
B. Fixed tariff
C. Distance
D. Both B & C
Q28. A car transported 1000 km → charge based on:
A. Parcel rate
B. Special scale
C. Goods rate
D. Luggage
Q29. Motorcycles fall under:
A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special articles
D. Scrap
Q30. Animals are charged as:
A. Parcel
B. Special class
C. Free
D. Goods
Q31. A dog traveling with passenger is charged:
A. Free
B. Fixed dog charge
C. Parcel rate
D. Goods rate
Q32. Dangerous goods require:
A. Declaration
B. Packing
C. Permission
D. All
Q33. If explosive declared wrongly →
A. No issue
B. Penalty
C. Refund
D. Free
Q34. Red Tariff deals with:
A. Normal goods
B. Dangerous goods
C. Passenger
D. Refund
Q35. Parcel not delivered due to wrong address →
A. Refund
B. Auction
C. Return
D. Destroy
Q36. Chargeable weight uses:
A. Actual
B. Volumetric
C. Higher of both
D. Lower
Q37. Volumetric weight is based on:
A. Weight
B. Volume
C. Distance
D. Time
Q38. Formula for volumetric weight uses:
A. Multiplication factor
B. Division factor
C. Fixed table
D. None
Q39. If no weighing possible →
A. Ignore
B. Estimate
C. Use measurement
D. Free
Q40. Parcel booking requires:
A. Forwarding note
B. Invoice
C. Declaration
D. All
Q41. Chargeable distance is:
A. Actual
B. Shortest route
C. Longest route
D. Random
Q42. If booked via longer route →
A. Charged higher
B. Charged shortest
C. Free
D. Discount
Q43. Parcel rate tables are in:
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q44. Fare tables are in:
A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part I
Q45. Concessions are in:
A. Part I Vol II
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q46. Refund rules are governed by:
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. None
Q47. Parcel delivery requires:
A. Receipt
B. Identity
C. Charges cleared
D. All
Q48. If parcel unclaimed →
A. Returned
B. Auction
C. Destroyed
D. All
Q49. IRCA tariff ensures:
A. Uniform rules
B. Uniform charges
C. Standard system
D. All
Q50. Main objective of tariff is:
A. Profit
B. Standardization
C. Tax
D. Audit
Q51. A parcel actual weight = 76 kg, volumetric = 92 kg → chargeable weight?
A. 76 kg
B. 90 kg
C. 92 kg
D. 100 kg
Q52. Same parcel (Q51) charged in multiples of 10 kg → final weight?
A. 90 kg
B. 92 kg
C. 100 kg
D. 110 kg
Q53. Parcel booked for 845 km, distance slab applied →
A. 845 km
B. 840 km
C. 850 km
D. 800 km
Q54. A parcel under Scale R for 500 km vs Scale P →
A. Same charge
B. P higher
C. R higher
D. No difference
Q55. If declared value exceeds limit, additional charge is:
A. % of excess value
B. Flat rate
C. Double rate
D. Free
Q56. A parcel valued ₹1,00,000 exceeds limit ₹50,000 → charge applies on:
A. ₹50,000
B. ₹1,00,000
C. ₹50,000 excess
D. Nil
Q57. If parcel booked at Owner’s Risk with high value →
A. Railway liable fully
B. Limited liability
C. No liability
D. Double liability
Q58. A parcel detained 3 days beyond free time →
A. Wharfage
B. Demurrage
C. Both
D. None
Q59. Free time expires after arrival →
A. Wharfage starts
B. Demurrage starts
C. No charge
D. Refund
Q60. If parcel stored in godown beyond limit →
A. Demurrage
B. Wharfage
C. Penalty
D. None
Q61. A passenger free allowance = 40 kg, carries 95 kg → excess?
A. 45 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 60 kg
Q62. Excess luggage charged at:
A. Parcel rate
B. Luggage rate
C. Goods rate
D. Free
Q63. Luggage booked separately is treated as:
A. Free
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Goods
Q64. If luggage exceeds dimension →
A. Allowed
B. Parcel
C. Free
D. Ignored
Q65. A 17 kg parcel → chargeable weight?
A. 15 kg
B. 17 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 25 kg
Q66. A 101 kg parcel → chargeable?
A. 100 kg
B. 101 kg
C. 110 kg
D. 120 kg
Q67. Parcel distance charged based on:
A. Actual
B. Shortest route
C. Longest
D. Random
Q68. If booked via longer route →
A. Charge higher
B. Charge shortest
C. Free
D. Discount
Q69. Volumetric weight = 200 kg, actual = 150 kg →
A. 150 kg
B. 200 kg
C. 175 kg
D. 180 kg
Q70. Conversion to volumetric weight uses:
A. Fixed divisor
B. Random
C. Distance
D. Time
Q71. A motor car transported 1500 km → charge depends on:
A. Parcel rate
B. Special tariff
C. Goods rate
D. Luggage
Q72. Motor cycle is charged as:
A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Free
Q73. A bicycle booked separately →
A. Free
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Goods
Q74. Animals transported under IRCA →
A. Parcel
B. Special rate
C. Goods
D. Free
Q75. A dog in brake van →
A. Free
B. Fixed charge
C. Parcel
D. Goods
Q76. Dangerous goods require:
A. Declaration
B. Special packing
C. Permission
D. All
Q77. Misdeclaration leads to:
A. No effect
B. Penalty
C. Refund
D. Free
Q78. Explosives governed under:
A. Red Tariff
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Yellow
Q79. Parcel without proper packing →
A. Accepted
B. Owner’s risk
C. Free
D. Rejected
Q80. Forwarding note includes:
A. Description
B. Weight
C. Value
D. All
Q81. A parcel not claimed after due period →
A. Return
B. Auction
C. Destroy
D. All
Q82. Auction proceeds adjusted against:
A. Charges
B. Loss
C. Both
D. None
Q83. If charges exceed auction value →
A. Refund
B. Loss
C. Balance recovered
D. Free
Q84. Parcel delivery requires:
A. Receipt
B. ID
C. Charges cleared
D. All
Q85. Chargeable distance rule ensures:
A. Fairness
B. Uniformity
C. Standardization
D. All
Q86. A parcel booked at wrong rate →
A. Ignored
B. Corrected
C. Free
D. Penalized
Q87. Rate revision affects:
A. Existing bookings
B. New bookings
C. Both
D. None
Q88. IRCA tariff applies to:
A. All railways
B. Only zones
C. Only stations
D. None
Q89. Parcel charge = rate × weight × distance →
A. True
B. False
C. Partial
D. None
Q90. Minimum charge ensures:
A. Profit
B. Cost recovery
C. Tax
D. Audit
Q91. If parcel rate per 10 kg is ₹50, weight 35 kg → charge?
A. ₹150
B. ₹175
C. ₹200
D. ₹250
Q92. A parcel 62 kg @₹40 per 10 kg →
A. ₹240
B. ₹248
C. ₹280
D. ₹300
Q93. Parcel 48 kg @₹30 per 10 kg →
A. ₹120
B. ₹144
C. ₹150
D. ₹180
Q94. Parcel 105 kg @₹20 per 10 kg →
A. ₹200
B. ₹210
C. ₹220
D. ₹240
Q95. Parcel 19 kg @₹50 per 10 kg →
A. ₹50
B. ₹100
C. ₹150
D. ₹200
Q96. Combined luggage allowance (2 passengers different class) →
A. Lower class
B. Higher class
C. Average
D. Separate
Q97. Student concession requires:
A. ID
B. Certificate
C. Approval
D. All
Q98. Military concession is:
A. Free
B. Reduced
C. Double
D. Nil
Q99. Refund of unused ticket governed by:
A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV
Q100. IRCA Coaching Tariff ensures:
A. Uniform rules
B. Uniform charges
C. Standard procedure
D. All
✅ ANSWER KEY (Q1–50)
1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B
6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-A, 10-B
11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-C
16-C, 17-B, 18-B, 19-B, 20-B
21-B, 22-B, 23-B, 24-A, 25-B
26-C, 27-D, 28-B, 29-C, 30-B
31-B, 32-D, 33-B, 34-B, 35-B
36-C, 37-B, 38-A, 39-C, 40-D
41-B, 42-B, 43-C, 44-A, 45-A
46-A, 47-D, 48-D, 49-D, 50-B
✅ ANSWER KEY (Q51–100)
51-C, 52-C, 53-C, 54-B, 55-A
56-C, 57-B, 58-A, 59-A, 60-B
61-C, 62-B, 63-B, 64-B, 65-C
66-C, 67-B, 68-B, 69-B, 70-A
71-B, 72-C, 73-C, 74-B, 75-B
76-D, 77-B, 78-A, 79-B, 80-D
81-D, 82-C, 83-C, 84-D, 85-D
86-B, 87-B, 88-A, 89-A, 90-B
91-C, 92-C, 93-C, 94-C, 95-B
96-B, 97-D, 98-B, 99-A, 100-D
✅ DIRECT TAX (FINANCE ACT, COMPUTERIZATION, VIGILANCE & TRAINING) - 100 MCQs
✅ PART 1 (Q1–50) – DIRECT TAX (FINANCE ACT, COMPUTERIZATION, VIGILANCE & TRAINING)
Q1. The Finance Act is passed annually to:
A. Amend GST
B. Amend Direct Taxes
C. Regulate RBI
D. Control inflation
Q2. Finance Act becomes effective from:
A. Date of presentation
B. 1st April of assessment year
C. Date of Presidential assent
D. Budget day
Q3. Income Tax rates are prescribed under:
A. Income Tax Act
B. Finance Act
C. GST Act
D. RBI Act
Q4. Which authority introduces Finance Bill?
A. RBI
B. Parliament
C. Finance Minister
D. CBDT
Q5. Finance Bill becomes Finance Act after:
A. Approval of CBDT
B. Passing by Parliament & assent
C. Audit
D. Notification
Q6. Amendment in tax law is generally effective from:
A. Same year
B. Previous year
C. Assessment year
D. Next financial year
Q7. Surcharge is levied on:
A. Income
B. Tax
C. Gross receipts
D. Profit
Q8. Health & Education cess is calculated on:
A. Income
B. Tax + surcharge
C. Gross income
D. Net income
Q9. Recent Finance Acts aim at:
A. Simplification
B. Digitization
C. Transparency
D. All
Q10. New tax regime under section 115BAC is:
A. Optional
B. Mandatory
C. Temporary
D. Ignored
Q11. Standard deduction is allowed under:
A. Business income
B. Salary income
C. Capital gains
D. Other sources
Q12. Rebate under section 87A applies to:
A. All taxpayers
B. Individuals
C. Companies
D. Firms
Q13. TDS provisions are amended through:
A. GST Act
B. Finance Act
C. RBI Act
D. SEBI
Q14. Faceless assessment is introduced to:
A. Increase tax
B. Reduce corruption
C. Increase workload
D. Delay cases
Q15. Faceless appeals are handled through:
A. Local office
B. Online platform
C. Courts
D. Banks
Q16. Computerization in Income Tax Department includes:
A. E-filing
B. CPC
C. AIS
D. All
Q17. CPC stands for:
A. Central Processing Centre
B. Central Payment Cell
C. Central Public Commission
D. None
Q18. CPC processes:
A. Returns
B. Refunds
C. Adjustments
D. All
Q19. CPC is located at:
A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Bengaluru
D. Chennai
Q20. AIS provides:
A. Tax data
B. Financial transactions
C. Income details
D. All
Q21. TIS stands for:
A. Taxpayer Information Summary
B. Tax Information System
C. Tax Income Sheet
D. None
Q22. AIS is more detailed than:
A. Form 16
B. Form 26AS
C. PAN
D. TAN
Q23. E-assessment eliminates:
A. Tax
B. Human interface
C. Filing
D. Refund
Q24. DIN is used in:
A. PAN
B. Notices
C. GST
D. Audit
Q25. DIN ensures:
A. Transparency
B. Tracking
C. Authenticity
D. All
Q26. Computerization reduces:
A. Errors
B. Corruption
C. Time
D. All
Q27. E-proceedings are conducted through:
A. Physical meetings
B. Online portal
C. Court
D. Bank
Q28. Income Tax portal provides:
A. Filing
B. Refund tracking
C. Notice response
D. All
Q29. Vigilance in IT Department refers to:
A. Tax collection
B. Monitoring corruption
C. Filing returns
D. Budgeting
Q30. Vigilance ensures:
A. Integrity
B. Discipline
C. Transparency
D. All
Q31. Vigilance cases include:
A. Fraud
B. Misconduct
C. Corruption
D. All
Q32. Preventive vigilance aims to:
A. Punish
B. Prevent misconduct
C. Audit
D. Collect tax
Q33. Training in IT Department is conducted for:
A. Skill development
B. Awareness
C. Efficiency
D. All
Q34. NADT stands for:
A. National Academy of Direct Taxes
B. National Audit Department
C. National Accounts Division
D. None
Q35. NADT is located at:
A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Nagpur
D. Chennai
Q36. Training helps in:
A. Updating knowledge
B. Improving efficiency
C. Handling technology
D. All
Q37. Recent amendments emphasize:
A. Digitization
B. Compliance
C. Ease of doing business
D. All
Q38. Pre-filled ITR is based on:
A. AIS
B. 26AS
C. TDS data
D. All
Q39. E-verification replaces:
A. Filing
B. Physical signature
C. Audit
D. Assessment
Q40. Online grievance system is:
A. CPGRAMS
B. AIS
C. TDS
D. GST
Q41. Faceless penalty scheme aims to:
A. Increase penalty
B. Ensure transparency
C. Delay cases
D. None
Q42. Risk management system is used for:
A. Audit selection
B. Refund
C. Filing
D. Payment
Q43. Data analytics is used for:
A. Tax evasion detection
B. Filing
C. Payment
D. Audit
Q44. PAN-Aadhaar linking ensures:
A. Identity verification
B. Transparency
C. Compliance
D. All
Q45. Recent amendments promote:
A. Cash transactions
B. Digital transactions
C. Barter
D. None
Q46. E-invoicing is related to:
A. GST
B. Income tax
C. Audit
D. Banking
Q47. Computerization improves:
A. Speed
B. Accuracy
C. Transparency
D. All
Q48. Vigilance department reports to:
A. CBDT
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. GST
Q49. Training programs include:
A. Technical
B. Legal
C. IT systems
D. All
Q50. Overall objective of reforms is:
A. Revenue increase
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. All
Q51. If a provision is amended by Finance Act without specific date, it is effective from:
A. Date of assent
B. 1st April of relevant assessment year
C. Budget day
D. Notification date
Q52. Amendment in surcharge rate affects:
A. Income
B. Tax liability
C. Gross receipts
D. Expenses
Q53. Health & Education cess is currently levied at:
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%
Q54. New tax regime under section 115BAC becomes default from:
A. FY 2021-22
B. FY 2022-23
C. FY 2023-24
D. FY 2024-25
Q55. Option to opt out of new tax regime is available to:
A. All taxpayers
B. Individuals & HUF
C. Companies
D. Firms only
Q56. Faceless assessment is governed under section:
A. 139
B. 143(3A)
C. 80C
D. 194
Q57. Jurisdiction in faceless scheme is:
A. Physical
B. Dynamic
C. Fixed
D. Local
Q58. DIN is mandatory for:
A. All communications
B. PAN
C. GST
D. Audit
Q59. Communication without DIN is:
A. Valid
B. Invalid
C. Optional
D. Conditional
Q60. E-proceedings reduce:
A. Paperwork
B. Physical interaction
C. Delay
D. All
Q61. AIS includes high-value transactions like:
A. Property
B. Shares
C. Bank deposits
D. All
Q62. TIS is derived from:
A. AIS
B. PAN
C. TAN
D. GST
Q63. Pre-filled ITR reduces:
A. Errors
B. Effort
C. Time
D. All
Q64. CPC uses automation for:
A. Processing returns
B. Refunds
C. Adjustments
D. All
Q65. Refund adjustment against demand is done under section:
A. 143(1)
B. 245
C. 139
D. 80C
Q66. Risk Management Strategy (RMS) is used for:
A. Selecting cases
B. Refund
C. Filing
D. Payment
Q67. Data analytics in ITD helps in:
A. Detecting evasion
B. Compliance monitoring
C. Risk assessment
D. All
Q68. PAN-Aadhaar linking is governed under section:
A. 139AA
B. 80C
C. 194
D. 143
Q69. Failure to link PAN-Aadhaar results in:
A. Penalty only
B. PAN inoperative
C. Refund delay
D. Both A & B
Q70. E-campaign by ITD is for:
A. Awareness
B. Compliance
C. Voluntary disclosure
D. All
Q71. Vigilance cases are handled by:
A. CBDT vigilance wing
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. GST
Q72. Vigilance angle includes:
A. Corruption
B. Misconduct
C. Abuse of power
D. All
Q73. Preventive vigilance includes:
A. Training
B. Monitoring
C. System improvement
D. All
Q74. Punitive vigilance deals with:
A. Prevention
B. Punishment
C. Training
D. Audit
Q75. Disciplinary action is taken for:
A. Misconduct
B. Fraud
C. Corruption
D. All
Q76. NADT provides training for:
A. IRS officers
B. Clerks
C. Bankers
D. Auditors
Q77. Training modules include:
A. Law
B. IT systems
C. Investigation
D. All
Q78. Continuous training ensures:
A. Updated knowledge
B. Efficiency
C. Compliance
D. All
Q79. E-learning platforms are used for:
A. Training
B. Filing
C. Audit
D. Payment
Q80. Skill development improves:
A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Decision-making
D. All
Q81. Finance Act amendments aim at:
A. Revenue mobilization
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. All
Q82. Digital economy is promoted through:
A. Cash incentives
B. Digital transactions
C. Barter
D. None
Q83. Equalisation levy relates to:
A. Domestic tax
B. Digital transactions
C. GST
D. Audit
Q84. GAAR stands for:
A. General Anti-Avoidance Rules
B. Gross Accounting Rules
C. General Audit Rules
D. None
Q85. GAAR targets:
A. Tax evasion
B. Tax avoidance
C. Compliance
D. Filing
Q86. Faceless penalty scheme ensures:
A. Bias
B. Transparency
C. Delay
D. None
Q87. ITBA system stands for:
A. Income Tax Business Application
B. Income Tax Banking App
C. Internal Tax Board Application
D. None
Q88. ITBA is used for:
A. Assessment
B. Appeals
C. Penalty
D. All
Q89. E-office in ITD ensures:
A. Paperless work
B. Efficiency
C. Transparency
D. All
Q90. Digital signature ensures:
A. Authentication
B. Security
C. Integrity
D. All
Q91. Finance Act amendments are interpreted with:
A. CBDT circulars
B. Case laws
C. Rules
D. All
Q92. CBDT issues:
A. Circulars
B. Instructions
C. Notifications
D. All
Q93. Circulars are binding on:
A. Assessee
B. Department
C. Court
D. None
Q94. Amendments can be:
A. Prospective
B. Retrospective
C. Both
D. None
Q95. Retrospective amendment affects:
A. Future
B. Past
C. Present
D. None
Q96. Computerization reduces:
A. Human error
B. Delay
C. Corruption
D. All
Q97. Data integration helps in:
A. Tracking income
B. Detecting evasion
C. Compliance
D. All
Q98. E-assessment improves:
A. Efficiency
B. Transparency
C. Accountability
D. All
Q99. Vigilance ensures:
A. Discipline
B. Integrity
C. Accountability
D. All
Q100. Overall reforms aim at:
A. Ease of doing business
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. All
✅ ANSWER KEY (Q1–50)
1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B
6-C, 7-B, 8-B, 9-D, 10-A
11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-B
16-D, 17-A, 18-D, 19-C, 20-D
21-A, 22-B, 23-B, 24-B, 25-D
26-D, 27-B, 28-D, 29-B, 30-D
31-D, 32-B, 33-D, 34-A, 35-C
36-D, 37-D, 38-D, 39-B, 40-A
41-B, 42-A, 43-A, 44-D, 45-B
46-A, 47-D, 48-A, 49-D, 50-D
✅ ANSWER KEY (Q51–100)
51-B, 52-B, 53-C, 54-C, 55-B
56-B, 57-B, 58-A, 59-B, 60-D
61-D, 62-A, 63-D, 64-D, 65-B
66-A, 67-D, 68-A, 69-D, 70-D
71-A, 72-D, 73-D, 74-B, 75-D
76-A, 77-D, 78-D, 79-A, 80-D
81-D, 82-B, 83-B, 84-A, 85-B
86-B, 87-A, 88-D, 89-D, 90-D
91-D, 92-D, 93-B, 94-C, 95-B
96-D, 97-D, 98-D, 99-D, 100-D