Departmental Exam Master
  • Home
  • Business
    • Internet
    • Market
    • Stock
  • Downloads
    • Dvd
    • Games
    • Software
      • Office
  • Parent Category
    • Child Category 1
      • Sub Child Category 1
      • Sub Child Category 2
      • Sub Child Category 3
    • Child Category 2
    • Child Category 3
    • Child Category 4
  • Featured
  • Health
    • Childcare
    • Doctors
  • Uncategorized

12 August 2026

APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2020

 Bhupendra Lad      August 12, 2026     No comments   

πŸ”₯ Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE πŸš€


APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAMINATION, 2020

SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS

  1. Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.

  2. Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any four of the remaining questions.


QUESTION 1

(1 × 28 = 28 Marks)

From the following Trial Balance of ABCD Ltd. and the additional information, prepare the Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended 30th June 2019.

Trial Balance

ParticularsDebit (₹)Credit (₹)
Capital—1,00,000
Furniture20,000—
Purchases1,50,000—
Debtors2,00,000—
Interest Earned—4,000
Salaries30,000—
Transportation Outwards7,000—
Creditors—1,20,000
Provision for Bad Debts—6,000
Printing and Stationery8,000—
Insurance Expense12,000—
Opening Stock50,000—
Sales—3,21,000
Purchase Returns—5,000
Office Expenses12,000—
Bank Overdraft—2,000
Wages20,000—
Drawings24,000—
Rent15,000—
Sales Returns10,000—
TOTAL5,58,0005,58,000

Additional Information

  1. Depreciate furniture by 10%.

  2. A provision for doubtful debts is to be created to the extent of 5% of sundry debtors.

  3. Salaries for the month of June 2019 amounting to ₹3,000 were unpaid and must be provided for. However, salaries included ₹2,000 paid in advance. Office expenses outstanding amounted to ₹8,000.

  4. Insurance amounting to ₹2,000 is prepaid.

  5. Stock used for private purposes amounted to ₹6,000 and closing stock was ₹60,000.


QUESTION 2

(4 × 4.5 = 18 Marks)

Write short notes on any four of the following:

  1. Accrual Accounting

  2. Balance Sheet

  3. Promissory Note

  4. Intangible Assets

  5. Accrued Income

  6. Bills Payable


QUESTION 3

(4 × 4.5 = 18 Marks)

Differentiate between any four of the following:

  1. Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure

  2. Single Entry System and Double Entry System

  3. Fixed Assets and Current Assets

  4. Journal and Ledger

  5. Trade Discount and Cash Discount


QUESTION 4

(1 × 14 = 14 Marks)

From the following particulars, prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31st December 2016 for PQRS Ltd.

S. No.ParticularsAmount (₹)
iBank balance overdraft as per Cash Book80,000
iiCheque recorded for collection but not sent to the bank10,000
iiiCredit side of the Cash Book cast short1,000
ivPremium on proprietor's Life Insurance Policy (LIP) paid on standing order5,000
vBank charges recorded twice in the Cash Book100
viCustomer's cheque returned by the bank as dishonoured4,000
viiBill Receivable collected by the bank directly on behalf of the company20,000
viiiCheque received entered twice in the Cash Book6,000
ixCheque issued but dishonoured on technical grounds3,000
xA cheque deposited into the bank of worth ₹45,000, but ₹8,000 cheques were not collected by the bank45,000

QUESTION 5

(1 × 18 = 18 Marks)

What is Depreciation? What are the causes and need for providing depreciation? Explain any two methods of calculating depreciation.


QUESTION 6

(1 × 18 = 18 Marks)

What are Subsidiary Books? What are the advantages of maintaining them? Explain the different types of Subsidiary Books.


QUESTION 7

(6 × 3 = 18 Marks)

Define the following terms:

  1. Capital

  2. Liabilities

  3. Assets

  4. Income

  5. Stock

  6. Book Keeping


* * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

Read More
  • Share This:  
  •  Facebook
  •  Twitter
  •  Google+
  •  Stumble
  •  Digg

APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2024

 Bhupendra Lad      August 12, 2026     No comments   

πŸ”₯ Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE πŸš€

APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAMINATION, 2024

SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Note:

  1. Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.

  2. Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any four of the remaining questions.


QUESTION 1 — 20 Marks

From the following Trial Balance of ABCD Ltd. and additional information, prepare the Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended 31st March 2017.

ParticularsDebit (₹)Credit (₹)
Plant and Machinery1,30,000—
Debtors50,000—
Creditors—2,50,000
Interest2,000—
Wages1,200—
Salaries2,500—
Carriage Inwards500—
Carriage Outwards700—
Returns Inwards2,000—
Returns Outwards—2,500
Factory Rent1,450—
Office Rent2,300—
Insurance Expense780—
Furniture22,500—
Buildings2,80,000—
Bills Payable—70,000
Provision for Bad Debts—1,550
Bills Receivable3,000—
Cash in Hand22,500—
Cash in Bank35,000—
Capital—2,20,000
Commission500—
Opening Stock60,000—
Purchases2,50,000—
Sales—3,00,000
Rent Received—10,380
Bad Debts3,500—
Commission Received—16,000

Additional Information:

  1. Provision for Bad Debts is to be maintained at 5% and further bad debts amount to ₹2,000.

  2. Rent received in advance is ₹6,000.

  3. Prepaid Insurance is ₹200.

  4. Depreciation is to be provided as follows:

    • Furniture @ 5%

    • Plant and Machinery @ 6%

    • Buildings @ 7%


QUESTION 2 — 20 Marks

Write short notes on any four of the following:

  1. Promissory Note

  2. Accrual Accounting

  3. Sinking Fund

  4. Reserve for Bad Debts

  5. Intangible Assets

  6. Debentures

(4 × 5 = 20 Marks)


QUESTION 3 — 20 Marks

Differentiate between any four of the following:

  1. Journal and Ledger

  2. Revenue Reserve and Capital Reserve

  3. Trade Discount and Cash Discount

  4. Loan and Overdraft

  5. Dividend and Interest

  6. Authorised Capital and Issued Capital

(4 × 5 = 20 Marks)


QUESTION 4 — 20 Marks

What are Subsidiary Books? What are the advantages of maintaining them? Briefly describe the different types of Subsidiary Books.

(20 Marks)


QUESTION 5

(a) Define Current Assets. Give five examples.

(10 Marks)

(b) What do Fixed Capital and Functional Capital mean?

(10 Marks)


QUESTION 6

(a) What is the difference between Single Entry System and Double Entry System?

(7 Marks)

(b) What is a Partnership Deed? Briefly explain its important clauses.

(8 Marks)

(c) What is Goodwill?

(5 Marks)


QUESTION 7

(a) What is the significance of a Bank Reconciliation Statement?

(5 Marks)

(b) From the following particulars, prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31st March 2014.

(15 Marks)

  1. Balance as per Cash Book is ₹10,000 and balance as per Pass Book is ₹13,529.

  2. A cheque for ₹1,000 was deposited but not recorded in the Cash Book.

  3. A cash deposit of ₹200 was made but was not recorded in the bank column.

  4. A cheque issued for ₹250 was not recorded.

  5. The debit balance of ₹1,500 as on the previous day was brought forward as a credit balance.

  6. The payment side of the Cash Book was undercast by ₹100.

  7. A cash discount allowed of ₹112 was recorded as ₹121 in the bank column.

  8. A cheque of ₹500 received from a debtor was recorded in the Cash Book but was not deposited in the bank for collection.

  9. One outgoing cheque of ₹300 was recorded twice in the Cash Book.


***************

Read More
  • Share This:  
  •  Facebook
  •  Twitter
  •  Google+
  •  Stumble
  •  Digg

APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2022

 Bhupendra Lad      August 12, 2026     No comments   

πŸ”₯ Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE πŸš€

APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAMINATION, 2022

SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions

  1. Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.

  2. Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any five of the remaining questions. Thus, a total of six questions are to be attempted.


QUESTION 1 — 25 Marks

Prepare a Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended 31st March 2022 from the following Trial Balance of ABC Ltd. as at 31st March 2022 and the additional information provided below:

ParticularsDebit (₹)Credit (₹)
ABC Ltd.'s Capital Account—2,60,000
ABC Ltd.'s Drawings Account36,000—
Lease of Warehouse (10 Years to run from 1st April 2021)55,000—
Stock, 1st April 20212,65,000—
Bills Receivable47,000—
Sales—14,45,000
XYZ Ltd.'s Loan Account36,000—
Purchases7,35,000—
Creditors—3,95,000
Salaries and Wages62,000—
Insurance5,000—
Debtors6,65,000—
Carriage Inwards17,500—
Carriage Outwards30,000—
Commission15,000—
Interest19,000—
Stationery & Printing5,500—
Bills Payable—66,500
Returns Inwards27,500—
Returns Outwards—25,000
Trade Expenses6,500—
Office Fixtures20,000—
Cash in Office6,500—
Cash at Bank1,17,000—
Rent and Taxes21,000—
Total21,91,50021,91,500

Additional Information

  1. The stock on 31st March 2022 was ₹3,15,000.

  2. ₹5,500 for rent and ₹5,500 for salaries were outstanding.

  3. ₹1,500 was prepaid in respect of insurance.

  4. The lease is to be written off by 10 percent.

  5. Office fixtures are to be depreciated by 5 percent.


QUESTION 2 — 15 Marks

Write short notes on any three of the following:

  1. Advantages of Double Entry System

  2. Bills Payable

  3. Sinking Fund

  4. Promissory Note

(5 × 3 = 15 Marks)


QUESTION 3

(a) Classify the following into Personal Accounts, Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts:

(1 × 7 = 7 Marks)

  1. Building

  2. Carriage Inwards

  3. Commission Received

  4. Bank Account

  5. Mr. Rao's Account

  6. Salary Account of Mohan

  7. Goodwill Account

(b) What is Doubtful Debt and why does Doubtful Debt occur? Describe Reserve for Doubtful Debts.

(4 + 4 = 8 Marks)


QUESTION 4

(a) State the need for preparation of a Bank Reconciliation Statement.

(5 Marks)

(b) XYZ Ltd. has a difference in the balance as per Cash Book and Bank Statement as on 31st March 2022. Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on that date with the following information:

(10 Marks)

  1. Balance as per Pass Book as on 31st March 2022 is ₹87,000. Balance as per Cash Book is ₹78,000.

  2. A cheque of ₹30,000 was deposited in the bank on 30th March 2022, but has not yet been credited.

  3. A cheque of ₹15,000 was issued but has not yet been presented for payment.

  4. An insurance premium of ₹20,000 was paid by the bank.

  5. Bank interest of ₹4,000 was credited by the bank but was not recorded in the Cash Book.

  6. ₹40,000 was deposited directly into the bank by the customer.


QUESTION 5 — 15 Marks

Differentiate between any three of the following:

  1. Cash Discount and Trade Discount

  2. Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure

  3. Assets and Liabilities

  4. Journal and Ledger

(5 × 3 = 15 Marks)


QUESTION 6

(a) Distinguish between Revenue Reserve and Capital Reserve. Give three examples each of Revenue Reserves and Capital Reserves.

(4 + 3 = 7 Marks)

(b) Define Fixed Assets. How should Fixed Assets be valued in a Balance Sheet?

(3 + 5 = 8 Marks)


QUESTION 7 — 15 Marks

What is depreciation? What is the need for providing depreciation? Enumerate the several methods (minimum five) of providing for depreciation and explain any one method with an example.

(3 + 4 + 8 = 15 Marks)


QUESTION 8

(a) Describe the purpose of preparing a Trial Balance. Explain errors of principle and give one example with measures to rectify the error.

(4 + 6 = 10 Marks)

(b) Explain the terms Gross Profit and Net Profit.

(5 Marks)


QUESTION 9

(a) State the meaning of "Outstanding Expenses" and "Accrued Income".

(5 Marks)

(b) Discuss the advantages secured by the preparation of a Trading Account.

(5 Marks)

(c) Explain the functions of the Petty Cash Book.

(5 Marks)


***************

Read More
  • Share This:  
  •  Facebook
  •  Twitter
  •  Google+
  •  Stumble
  •  Digg

APPENDIX-IIA- ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2021

 Bhupendra Lad      August 12, 2026     No comments   

πŸ”₯ Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE πŸš€

NORTH CENTRAL RAILWAY

APPENDIX-IIA (IREM) EXAM, 2021

SUBJECT: ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING

Maximum Marks: 100
Time: 3 Hours

Note:

  1. Questions may be answered in Hindi or English.

  2. Question 1 is compulsory. Attempt any five of the remaining questions. Total six questions are to be attempted.

QUESTION 1 — 25 Marks

Prepare Trading and Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet for the year ended on 31st March 2021 from the following Trial Balance of ABC Ltd. as at 31st March 2021 and additional information provided below:

ParticularsDebit (₹)Credit (₹)
ABC Ltd.'s Capital Account—2,50,000
ABC Ltd.'s Drawings Account28,000—
Lease of Warehouse (10 Years to run from 1st April 2020)50,000—
Stock, 1st April 20202,50,000—
Bills Receivable40,000—
Sales—14,00,000
XYZ Ltd.'s Loan Account30,000—
Purchases7,50,000—
Creditors—4,00,000
Salaries and Wages60,000—
Insurance4,000—
Debtors6,50,000—
Carriage Inwards17,000—
Carriage Outwards29,000—
Commission15,000—
Interest18,000—
Stationery & Printing5,000—
Bills Payable—63,000
Returns Inwards26,000—
Returns Outwards—10,000
Trade Expenses6,000—
Office Fixtures20,000—
Cash in Office5,000—
Cash at Bank1,00,000—
Rent and Taxes20,000—
Total21,23,00021,23,000

Additional Information:

  1. The stock on 31st March 2021 was ₹3,00,000.

  2. ₹4,000 for rent and ₹6,000 for salaries were outstanding.

  3. ₹1,000 was paid in advance in respect of insurance.

  4. The lease is to be written off by 10 percent.

  5. Office fixtures are to be depreciated by 5 percent.

QUESTION 2 — 15 Marks

Write short notes on any three of the following:

(i) Objectives of Book Keeping
(ii) Bill of Exchange
(iii) Reducing Balance Method of Depreciation
(iv) Analytical Petty Cash Book

QUESTION 3

(a) Give four examples each of Personal Accounts, Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts.
(6 Marks)

(b) Anand is a trader dealing in textiles. For the following transactions, pass journal entries for the month of January 2021.
(1.5 × 6 = 9 Marks)

  1. Purchased goods from X and Co. on credit — ₹30,000

  2. Bought a building from Y and Co. on credit — ₹95,000

  3. Cash withdrawn from bank for office use — ₹5,000

  4. Towels given to charities — ₹3,000

  5. Sarees distributed as free samples — ₹3,000

  6. Goods (table clothes) used for office use — ₹200

QUESTION 4 — 15 Marks

XYZ Ltd. has a difference in the balance as per Cash Book and Bank Statement as on 31st March 2021. You are advised to prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on that date with the following information:

  1. Balance as per Bank Statement as on 31st March 2021 is ₹40,000. Balance as per Cash Book is ₹14,000.

  2. Cheques of ₹10,000 and ₹5,000 issued on 30th March 2021, but not yet cleared.

  3. An insurance premium paid by bank ₹2,000. It is not yet recorded in Cash Book.

  4. An outgoing cheque of ₹20,000 recorded twice in the Cash Book. It is properly recorded in the bank statement.

  5. Payment of a cheque of ₹4,000 recorded twice in Pass Book.

  6. Dividends received ₹5,000 recorded only in the bank statement and not in the Cash Book.

  7. Cheque of ₹7,000 deposited on 29th March 2021, but it is not yet collected.

  8. Bank charges of ₹1,000 debited only in Bank Pass Book.

QUESTION 5 — 15 Marks

Differentiate between any three of the following:

(i) Cash Discount and Trade Discount
(ii) Reserve Fund and Reserve Account
(iii) Fixed Assets and Floating Assets
(iv) Opening Entries and Closing Entries

QUESTION 6

(a) What do you understand by Prepaid Expenses? Explain with an example.
(5 Marks)

(b) Explain what you understand by Bad Debts and Doubtful Debts. What entries would you pass to write off Bad Debts?
(7 + 3 = 10 Marks)

QUESTION 7

(a) Mention the different ways in which a bill can be endorsed, and state clearly the effect of each endorsement.
(11 Marks)

(b) What do you understand by a Promissory Note?
(4 Marks)

QUESTION 8 — 15 Marks

What is a Trial Balance? Mention the different classes of errors, the presence of which would prevent a Trial Balance from agreeing. What type of errors does a Trial Balance fail to disclose?

(4 + 5 + 6 = 15 Marks)

QUESTION 9

(a) What purpose does a Balance Sheet serve?
(5 Marks)

(b) Explain Deferred Revenue Expenditure.
(5 Marks)

(c) What do you understand by Noting and Protesting in relation to dishonouring of bills?
(5 Marks)


Read More
  • Share This:  
  •  Facebook
  •  Twitter
  •  Google+
  •  Stumble
  •  Digg

27 April 2026

✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – 150 PRACTICAL MCQs (NUMERICAL + CASE BASED)

 Bhupendra Lad      April 27, 2026     RAE     No comments   

πŸ”₯ Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE πŸš€

✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – 50 PRACTICAL MCQs (NUMERICAL + CASE BASED)


Q1. A passenger travels 600 km in Sleeper Class. Fare is calculated based on:

A. Actual distance
B. Rounded distance slabs
C. Weight
D. Time


Q2. Luggage exceeding free allowance is charged based on:

A. Distance only
B. Weight or measurement whichever higher
C. Volume only
D. Flat rate


Q3. A parcel weighs 80 kg but volumetric weight is 120 kg. Chargeable weight:

A. 80 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 120 kg
D. 200 kg


Q4. Minimum chargeable weight for parcels is:

A. 1 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 10 kg
D. 20 kg


Q5. Parcel rate tables are provided in:

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV



Q6. A package weighing 8 kg will be charged as:

A. 8 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 1 kg


Q7. If luggage exceeds prescribed size, it is treated as:

A. Free luggage
B. Parcel
C. Scrap
D. Goods


Q8. Free luggage allowance depends on:

A. Distance
B. Class of travel
C. Weight
D. Train speed


Q9. If actual weight < volumetric weight, then:

A. Ignore
B. Use actual
C. Use higher
D. Average


Q10. Parcel charges are based on:

A. Distance + weight
B. Weight only
C. Time
D. Class



Q11. A 50 kg parcel travels 500 km under Scale R. Charges depend on:

A. Scale rate
B. Passenger fare
C. GST
D. Discount


Q12. Wharfage charges are levied for:

A. Delay in booking
B. Delay in removal
C. Delay in train
D. Refund


Q13. Demurrage applies when:

A. Parcel delayed in godown
B. Wagon detained
C. Passenger delayed
D. Ticket cancelled


Q14. A parcel not collected within free time attracts:

A. Fine
B. Wharfage
C. Demurrage
D. Penalty


Q15. Animals are charged as:

A. Parcel
B. Passenger
C. Special rate
D. Free



Q16. A dog accompanying passenger is charged as:

A. Free
B. Parcel rate
C. Special dog rate
D. Luggage


Q17. A bicycle is charged under:

A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Free


Q18. Motor car transport charges are given in:

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV


Q19. A car weighing 1000 kg is charged based on:

A. Weight
B. Prescribed rate
C. Distance
D. Both B & C


Q20. If parcel is defectively packed:

A. Accepted normally
B. Rejected or booked at owner’s risk
C. Free
D. Ignored



Q21. Owner’s risk rate is:

A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Free


Q22. Railway risk rate is:

A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Double


Q23. If value declared, risk rate is:

A. Reduced
B. Increased
C. Same
D. Ignored


Q24. Parcel booking requires:

A. Invoice
B. Forwarding note
C. Ticket
D. GST


Q25. Chargeable distance includes:

A. Actual route
B. Shortest route
C. Approved route
D. All



Q26. A parcel booked for 1200 km but charged for 1000 km → reason:

A. Error
B. Shortest route applied
C. Discount
D. Special train


Q27. Scale P is used for:

A. Express parcels
B. Ordinary parcels
C. Special goods
D. Animals


Q28. Scale S applies to:

A. Luggage
B. Special parcels
C. Animals
D. Scrap


Q29. Minimum parcel charge is based on:

A. 10 kg
B. 5 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 1 kg


Q30. Parcel rate increases with:

A. Distance
B. Weight
C. Both
D. None



Q31. A parcel booked as luggage but exceeds size →

A. Accepted
B. Converted to parcel
C. Free
D. Ignored


Q32. Dangerous goods booking requires:

A. Declaration
B. Permission
C. Special packing
D. All


Q33. Explosives are governed under:

A. Red Tariff
B. Green Tariff
C. Blue Tariff
D. None


Q34. If wrong declaration made:

A. No action
B. Penalty
C. Refund
D. Discount


Q35. Booking of parcels is done through:

A. Ticket
B. Waybill
C. Invoice
D. Receipt



Q36. Luggage booked separately is treated as:

A. Free
B. Parcel
C. Special
D. Goods


Q37. A parcel weighing 15 kg is charged as:

A. 15 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 5 kg


Q38. If weight not available, charge is based on:

A. Estimate
B. Measurement
C. Guess
D. Ignore


Q39. Measurement converted to weight using:

A. Formula
B. Table
C. Guess
D. Average


Q40. Parcel delivery requires:

A. Receipt
B. Identity
C. Payment
D. All



Q41. Concessions are given under:

A. Part I Vol II
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV


Q42. Student concession requires:

A. ID
B. Certificate
C. Ticket
D. All


Q43. Military concession allows:

A. Free travel
B. Reduced fare
C. No fare
D. Double fare


Q44. Combined ticket luggage allowance:

A. Lower class
B. Higher class
C. Average
D. None


Q45. Refund rules are in:

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. None



Q46. Parcel rate per 10 kg is shown in:

A. Part III
B. Part II
C. Part I
D. Part IV


Q47. A parcel 25 kg → charged as:

A. 20 kg
B. 25 kg
C. 30 kg
D. 10 kg


Q48. Special articles include:

A. Cars
B. Aeroplanes
C. Motorcycles
D. All


Q49. Parcel not removed → charged till:

A. Delivery
B. Disposal
C. Auction
D. All


Q50. IRCA Coaching Tariff ensures:

A. Uniform rules
B. Uniform rates
C. Standard procedures
D. All


✅ ANSWER KEY (1–50)

1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-C, 5-C
6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-C, 10-A

11-A, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-C
16-C, 17-C, 18-D, 19-D, 20-B

21-B, 22-B, 23-B, 24-B, 25-C
26-B, 27-A, 28-B, 29-A, 30-C

31-B, 32-D, 33-A, 34-B, 35-B
36-B, 37-C, 38-B, 39-A, 40-D

41-A, 42-B, 43-B, 44-B, 45-A
46-A, 47-C, 48-D, 49-D, 50-D

✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – ULTRA TOUGH MCQs (PART 1: Q1–50)


Q1. A parcel weighs 42 kg, volumetric weight = 55 kg. Charged weight?

A. 42 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 60 kg


Q2. Minimum chargeable weight rule applies as:

A. Exact weight
B. Next 5 kg
C. Next 10 kg
D. Nearest kg


Q3. A parcel 23 kg will be charged as:

A. 20 kg
B. 23 kg
C. 25 kg
D. 30 kg


Q4. If volumetric weight = 18 kg and actual = 21 kg → charge?

A. 18 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 21 kg
D. 25 kg


Q5. Parcel distance slab system ensures:

A. Exact km charging
B. Rounded km charging
C. Free km
D. Discount



Q6. A parcel booked 610 km is charged under:

A. Exact 610 km
B. Next slab
C. Previous slab
D. Average


Q7. Scale R is applicable for:

A. Urgent parcels
B. Ordinary parcels
C. Luggage
D. Animals


Q8. Scale P is applicable for:

A. Passenger luggage
B. Express parcels
C. Scrap
D. Animals


Q9. A parcel booked under Scale P costs higher because:

A. Faster service
B. Heavier
C. Longer distance
D. Special tax


Q10. If parcel declared value exceeds limit →

A. No effect
B. Pay percentage charge
C. Free
D. Reject



Q11. A parcel booked at Railway Risk vs Owner’s Risk difference is:

A. Speed
B. Liability
C. Distance
D. Weight


Q12. Railway Risk Rate is:

A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Same
D. Double


Q13. Owner’s Risk Rate is chosen when:

A. High value
B. Low value
C. Heavy parcel
D. Long distance


Q14. If parcel is lost under Owner’s Risk →

A. Full compensation
B. Limited liability
C. No liability
D. Double refund


Q15. Wharfage is charged after:

A. Booking
B. Arrival
C. Free time expiry
D. Delivery



Q16. Free time for parcel delivery is generally:

A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours


Q17. If parcel is removed after 48 hrs →

A. No charge
B. Wharfage
C. Demurrage
D. Penalty


Q18. Demurrage applies to:

A. Parcel
B. Wagon detention
C. Passenger
D. Ticket


Q19. A wagon detained beyond free time →

A. Wharfage
B. Demurrage
C. Penalty
D. Free


Q20. If both demurrage & wharfage apply →

A. Only one
B. Both
C. Higher
D. Lower



Q21. Luggage free allowance depends on:

A. Distance
B. Class
C. Time
D. Speed


Q22. Excess luggage is charged at:

A. Parcel rate
B. Luggage rate
C. Goods rate
D. Free


Q23. A suitcase exceeding size limit →

A. Allowed
B. Treated as parcel
C. Free
D. Ignored


Q24. A passenger carries 80 kg but free allowance = 40 kg → chargeable?

A. 40 kg
B. 80 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 60 kg


Q25. Excess luggage charge is based on:

A. Parcel scale
B. Special luggage rate
C. Goods rate
D. GST



Q26. Bicycle transported by train is treated as:

A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Free


Q27. Motor car transport is charged based on:

A. Weight
B. Fixed tariff
C. Distance
D. Both B & C


Q28. A car transported 1000 km → charge based on:

A. Parcel rate
B. Special scale
C. Goods rate
D. Luggage


Q29. Motorcycles fall under:

A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special articles
D. Scrap


Q30. Animals are charged as:

A. Parcel
B. Special class
C. Free
D. Goods



Q31. A dog traveling with passenger is charged:

A. Free
B. Fixed dog charge
C. Parcel rate
D. Goods rate


Q32. Dangerous goods require:

A. Declaration
B. Packing
C. Permission
D. All


Q33. If explosive declared wrongly →

A. No issue
B. Penalty
C. Refund
D. Free


Q34. Red Tariff deals with:

A. Normal goods
B. Dangerous goods
C. Passenger
D. Refund


Q35. Parcel not delivered due to wrong address →

A. Refund
B. Auction
C. Return
D. Destroy



Q36. Chargeable weight uses:

A. Actual
B. Volumetric
C. Higher of both
D. Lower


Q37. Volumetric weight is based on:

A. Weight
B. Volume
C. Distance
D. Time


Q38. Formula for volumetric weight uses:

A. Multiplication factor
B. Division factor
C. Fixed table
D. None


Q39. If no weighing possible →

A. Ignore
B. Estimate
C. Use measurement
D. Free


Q40. Parcel booking requires:

A. Forwarding note
B. Invoice
C. Declaration
D. All



Q41. Chargeable distance is:

A. Actual
B. Shortest route
C. Longest route
D. Random


Q42. If booked via longer route →

A. Charged higher
B. Charged shortest
C. Free
D. Discount


Q43. Parcel rate tables are in:

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV


Q44. Fare tables are in:

A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part I


Q45. Concessions are in:

A. Part I Vol II
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV



Q46. Refund rules are governed by:

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. None


Q47. Parcel delivery requires:

A. Receipt
B. Identity
C. Charges cleared
D. All


Q48. If parcel unclaimed →

A. Returned
B. Auction
C. Destroyed
D. All


Q49. IRCA tariff ensures:

A. Uniform rules
B. Uniform charges
C. Standard system
D. All


Q50. Main objective of tariff is:

A. Profit
B. Standardization
C. Tax
D. Audit


Q51. A parcel actual weight = 76 kg, volumetric = 92 kg → chargeable weight?

A. 76 kg
B. 90 kg
C. 92 kg
D. 100 kg


Q52. Same parcel (Q51) charged in multiples of 10 kg → final weight?

A. 90 kg
B. 92 kg
C. 100 kg
D. 110 kg


Q53. Parcel booked for 845 km, distance slab applied →

A. 845 km
B. 840 km
C. 850 km
D. 800 km


Q54. A parcel under Scale R for 500 km vs Scale P →

A. Same charge
B. P higher
C. R higher
D. No difference


Q55. If declared value exceeds limit, additional charge is:

A. % of excess value
B. Flat rate
C. Double rate
D. Free



Q56. A parcel valued ₹1,00,000 exceeds limit ₹50,000 → charge applies on:

A. ₹50,000
B. ₹1,00,000
C. ₹50,000 excess
D. Nil


Q57. If parcel booked at Owner’s Risk with high value →

A. Railway liable fully
B. Limited liability
C. No liability
D. Double liability


Q58. A parcel detained 3 days beyond free time →

A. Wharfage
B. Demurrage
C. Both
D. None


Q59. Free time expires after arrival →

A. Wharfage starts
B. Demurrage starts
C. No charge
D. Refund


Q60. If parcel stored in godown beyond limit →

A. Demurrage
B. Wharfage
C. Penalty
D. None



Q61. A passenger free allowance = 40 kg, carries 95 kg → excess?

A. 45 kg
B. 50 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 60 kg


Q62. Excess luggage charged at:

A. Parcel rate
B. Luggage rate
C. Goods rate
D. Free


Q63. Luggage booked separately is treated as:

A. Free
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Goods


Q64. If luggage exceeds dimension →

A. Allowed
B. Parcel
C. Free
D. Ignored


Q65. A 17 kg parcel → chargeable weight?

A. 15 kg
B. 17 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 25 kg



Q66. A 101 kg parcel → chargeable?

A. 100 kg
B. 101 kg
C. 110 kg
D. 120 kg


Q67. Parcel distance charged based on:

A. Actual
B. Shortest route
C. Longest
D. Random


Q68. If booked via longer route →

A. Charge higher
B. Charge shortest
C. Free
D. Discount


Q69. Volumetric weight = 200 kg, actual = 150 kg →

A. 150 kg
B. 200 kg
C. 175 kg
D. 180 kg


Q70. Conversion to volumetric weight uses:

A. Fixed divisor
B. Random
C. Distance
D. Time



Q71. A motor car transported 1500 km → charge depends on:

A. Parcel rate
B. Special tariff
C. Goods rate
D. Luggage


Q72. Motor cycle is charged as:

A. Luggage
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Free


Q73. A bicycle booked separately →

A. Free
B. Parcel
C. Special article
D. Goods


Q74. Animals transported under IRCA →

A. Parcel
B. Special rate
C. Goods
D. Free


Q75. A dog in brake van →

A. Free
B. Fixed charge
C. Parcel
D. Goods



Q76. Dangerous goods require:

A. Declaration
B. Special packing
C. Permission
D. All


Q77. Misdeclaration leads to:

A. No effect
B. Penalty
C. Refund
D. Free


Q78. Explosives governed under:

A. Red Tariff
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Yellow


Q79. Parcel without proper packing →

A. Accepted
B. Owner’s risk
C. Free
D. Rejected


Q80. Forwarding note includes:

A. Description
B. Weight
C. Value
D. All



Q81. A parcel not claimed after due period →

A. Return
B. Auction
C. Destroy
D. All


Q82. Auction proceeds adjusted against:

A. Charges
B. Loss
C. Both
D. None


Q83. If charges exceed auction value →

A. Refund
B. Loss
C. Balance recovered
D. Free


Q84. Parcel delivery requires:

A. Receipt
B. ID
C. Charges cleared
D. All


Q85. Chargeable distance rule ensures:

A. Fairness
B. Uniformity
C. Standardization
D. All



Q86. A parcel booked at wrong rate →

A. Ignored
B. Corrected
C. Free
D. Penalized


Q87. Rate revision affects:

A. Existing bookings
B. New bookings
C. Both
D. None


Q88. IRCA tariff applies to:

A. All railways
B. Only zones
C. Only stations
D. None


Q89. Parcel charge = rate × weight × distance →

A. True
B. False
C. Partial
D. None


Q90. Minimum charge ensures:

A. Profit
B. Cost recovery
C. Tax
D. Audit



Q91. If parcel rate per 10 kg is ₹50, weight 35 kg → charge?

A. ₹150
B. ₹175
C. ₹200
D. ₹250


Q92. A parcel 62 kg @₹40 per 10 kg →

A. ₹240
B. ₹248
C. ₹280
D. ₹300


Q93. Parcel 48 kg @₹30 per 10 kg →

A. ₹120
B. ₹144
C. ₹150
D. ₹180


Q94. Parcel 105 kg @₹20 per 10 kg →

A. ₹200
B. ₹210
C. ₹220
D. ₹240


Q95. Parcel 19 kg @₹50 per 10 kg →

A. ₹50
B. ₹100
C. ₹150
D. ₹200



Q96. Combined luggage allowance (2 passengers different class) →

A. Lower class
B. Higher class
C. Average
D. Separate


Q97. Student concession requires:

A. ID
B. Certificate
C. Approval
D. All


Q98. Military concession is:

A. Free
B. Reduced
C. Double
D. Nil


Q99. Refund of unused ticket governed by:

A. Part I
B. Part II
C. Part III
D. Part IV


Q100. IRCA Coaching Tariff ensures:

A. Uniform rules
B. Uniform charges
C. Standard procedure
D. All

✅ ANSWER KEY (Q1–50)

1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B
6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-A, 10-B

11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-C
16-C, 17-B, 18-B, 19-B, 20-B

21-B, 22-B, 23-B, 24-A, 25-B
26-C, 27-D, 28-B, 29-C, 30-B

31-B, 32-D, 33-B, 34-B, 35-B

36-C, 37-B, 38-A, 39-C, 40-D

41-B, 42-B, 43-C, 44-A, 45-A
46-A, 47-D, 48-D, 49-D, 50-B

✅ ANSWER KEY (Q51–100)

51-C, 52-C, 53-C, 54-B, 55-A

56-C, 57-B, 58-A, 59-A, 60-B

61-C, 62-B, 63-B, 64-B, 65-C

66-C, 67-B, 68-B, 69-B, 70-A

71-B, 72-C, 73-C, 74-B, 75-B

76-D, 77-B, 78-A, 79-B, 80-D

81-D, 82-C, 83-C, 84-D, 85-D

86-B, 87-B, 88-A, 89-A, 90-B

91-C, 92-C, 93-C, 94-C, 95-B

96-B, 97-D, 98-B, 99-A, 100-D

Read More
  • Share This:  
  •  Facebook
  •  Twitter
  •  Google+
  •  Stumble
  •  Digg

✅ DIRECT TAX (FINANCE ACT, COMPUTERIZATION, VIGILANCE & TRAINING) - 100 MCQs

 Bhupendra Lad      April 27, 2026     Direct Tax, Finance Act, Income-tax, RAE, Vigilence     No comments   

πŸ”₯ Click Here → Then Tap FOLLOW
Get Daily Railway MCQs FREE πŸš€

✅ PART 1 (Q1–50) – DIRECT TAX (FINANCE ACT, COMPUTERIZATION, VIGILANCE & TRAINING)


Q1. The Finance Act is passed annually to:

A. Amend GST
B. Amend Direct Taxes
C. Regulate RBI
D. Control inflation


Q2. Finance Act becomes effective from:

A. Date of presentation
B. 1st April of assessment year
C. Date of Presidential assent
D. Budget day


Q3. Income Tax rates are prescribed under:

A. Income Tax Act
B. Finance Act
C. GST Act
D. RBI Act


Q4. Which authority introduces Finance Bill?

A. RBI
B. Parliament
C. Finance Minister
D. CBDT


Q5. Finance Bill becomes Finance Act after:

A. Approval of CBDT
B. Passing by Parliament & assent
C. Audit
D. Notification



Q6. Amendment in tax law is generally effective from:

A. Same year
B. Previous year
C. Assessment year
D. Next financial year


Q7. Surcharge is levied on:

A. Income
B. Tax
C. Gross receipts
D. Profit


Q8. Health & Education cess is calculated on:

A. Income
B. Tax + surcharge
C. Gross income
D. Net income


Q9. Recent Finance Acts aim at:

A. Simplification
B. Digitization
C. Transparency
D. All


Q10. New tax regime under section 115BAC is:

A. Optional
B. Mandatory
C. Temporary
D. Ignored



Q11. Standard deduction is allowed under:

A. Business income
B. Salary income
C. Capital gains
D. Other sources


Q12. Rebate under section 87A applies to:

A. All taxpayers
B. Individuals
C. Companies
D. Firms


Q13. TDS provisions are amended through:

A. GST Act
B. Finance Act
C. RBI Act
D. SEBI


Q14. Faceless assessment is introduced to:

A. Increase tax
B. Reduce corruption
C. Increase workload
D. Delay cases


Q15. Faceless appeals are handled through:

A. Local office
B. Online platform
C. Courts
D. Banks



Q16. Computerization in Income Tax Department includes:

A. E-filing
B. CPC
C. AIS
D. All


Q17. CPC stands for:

A. Central Processing Centre
B. Central Payment Cell
C. Central Public Commission
D. None


Q18. CPC processes:

A. Returns
B. Refunds
C. Adjustments
D. All


Q19. CPC is located at:

A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Bengaluru
D. Chennai


Q20. AIS provides:

A. Tax data
B. Financial transactions
C. Income details
D. All



Q21. TIS stands for:

A. Taxpayer Information Summary
B. Tax Information System
C. Tax Income Sheet
D. None


Q22. AIS is more detailed than:

A. Form 16
B. Form 26AS
C. PAN
D. TAN


Q23. E-assessment eliminates:

A. Tax
B. Human interface
C. Filing
D. Refund


Q24. DIN is used in:

A. PAN
B. Notices
C. GST
D. Audit


Q25. DIN ensures:

A. Transparency
B. Tracking
C. Authenticity
D. All



Q26. Computerization reduces:

A. Errors
B. Corruption
C. Time
D. All


Q27. E-proceedings are conducted through:

A. Physical meetings
B. Online portal
C. Court
D. Bank


Q28. Income Tax portal provides:

A. Filing
B. Refund tracking
C. Notice response
D. All


Q29. Vigilance in IT Department refers to:

A. Tax collection
B. Monitoring corruption
C. Filing returns
D. Budgeting


Q30. Vigilance ensures:

A. Integrity
B. Discipline
C. Transparency
D. All



Q31. Vigilance cases include:

A. Fraud
B. Misconduct
C. Corruption
D. All


Q32. Preventive vigilance aims to:

A. Punish
B. Prevent misconduct
C. Audit
D. Collect tax


Q33. Training in IT Department is conducted for:

A. Skill development
B. Awareness
C. Efficiency
D. All


Q34. NADT stands for:

A. National Academy of Direct Taxes
B. National Audit Department
C. National Accounts Division
D. None


Q35. NADT is located at:

A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Nagpur
D. Chennai



Q36. Training helps in:

A. Updating knowledge
B. Improving efficiency
C. Handling technology
D. All


Q37. Recent amendments emphasize:

A. Digitization
B. Compliance
C. Ease of doing business
D. All


Q38. Pre-filled ITR is based on:

A. AIS
B. 26AS
C. TDS data
D. All


Q39. E-verification replaces:

A. Filing
B. Physical signature
C. Audit
D. Assessment


Q40. Online grievance system is:

A. CPGRAMS
B. AIS
C. TDS
D. GST



Q41. Faceless penalty scheme aims to:

A. Increase penalty
B. Ensure transparency
C. Delay cases
D. None


Q42. Risk management system is used for:

A. Audit selection
B. Refund
C. Filing
D. Payment


Q43. Data analytics is used for:

A. Tax evasion detection
B. Filing
C. Payment
D. Audit


Q44. PAN-Aadhaar linking ensures:

A. Identity verification
B. Transparency
C. Compliance
D. All


Q45. Recent amendments promote:

A. Cash transactions
B. Digital transactions
C. Barter
D. None



Q46. E-invoicing is related to:

A. GST
B. Income tax
C. Audit
D. Banking


Q47. Computerization improves:

A. Speed
B. Accuracy
C. Transparency
D. All


Q48. Vigilance department reports to:

A. CBDT
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. GST


Q49. Training programs include:

A. Technical
B. Legal
C. IT systems
D. All


Q50. Overall objective of reforms is:

A. Revenue increase
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. All


Q51. If a provision is amended by Finance Act without specific date, it is effective from:

A. Date of assent
B. 1st April of relevant assessment year
C. Budget day
D. Notification date


Q52. Amendment in surcharge rate affects:

A. Income
B. Tax liability
C. Gross receipts
D. Expenses


Q53. Health & Education cess is currently levied at:

A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%


Q54. New tax regime under section 115BAC becomes default from:

A. FY 2021-22
B. FY 2022-23
C. FY 2023-24
D. FY 2024-25


Q55. Option to opt out of new tax regime is available to:

A. All taxpayers
B. Individuals & HUF
C. Companies
D. Firms only



Q56. Faceless assessment is governed under section:

A. 139
B. 143(3A)
C. 80C
D. 194


Q57. Jurisdiction in faceless scheme is:

A. Physical
B. Dynamic
C. Fixed
D. Local


Q58. DIN is mandatory for:

A. All communications
B. PAN
C. GST
D. Audit


Q59. Communication without DIN is:

A. Valid
B. Invalid
C. Optional
D. Conditional


Q60. E-proceedings reduce:

A. Paperwork
B. Physical interaction
C. Delay
D. All



Q61. AIS includes high-value transactions like:

A. Property
B. Shares
C. Bank deposits
D. All


Q62. TIS is derived from:

A. AIS
B. PAN
C. TAN
D. GST


Q63. Pre-filled ITR reduces:

A. Errors
B. Effort
C. Time
D. All


Q64. CPC uses automation for:

A. Processing returns
B. Refunds
C. Adjustments
D. All


Q65. Refund adjustment against demand is done under section:

A. 143(1)
B. 245
C. 139
D. 80C



Q66. Risk Management Strategy (RMS) is used for:

A. Selecting cases
B. Refund
C. Filing
D. Payment


Q67. Data analytics in ITD helps in:

A. Detecting evasion
B. Compliance monitoring
C. Risk assessment
D. All


Q68. PAN-Aadhaar linking is governed under section:

A. 139AA
B. 80C
C. 194
D. 143


Q69. Failure to link PAN-Aadhaar results in:

A. Penalty only
B. PAN inoperative
C. Refund delay
D. Both A & B


Q70. E-campaign by ITD is for:

A. Awareness
B. Compliance
C. Voluntary disclosure
D. All



Q71. Vigilance cases are handled by:

A. CBDT vigilance wing
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. GST


Q72. Vigilance angle includes:

A. Corruption
B. Misconduct
C. Abuse of power
D. All


Q73. Preventive vigilance includes:

A. Training
B. Monitoring
C. System improvement
D. All


Q74. Punitive vigilance deals with:

A. Prevention
B. Punishment
C. Training
D. Audit


Q75. Disciplinary action is taken for:

A. Misconduct
B. Fraud
C. Corruption
D. All



Q76. NADT provides training for:

A. IRS officers
B. Clerks
C. Bankers
D. Auditors


Q77. Training modules include:

A. Law
B. IT systems
C. Investigation
D. All


Q78. Continuous training ensures:

A. Updated knowledge
B. Efficiency
C. Compliance
D. All


Q79. E-learning platforms are used for:

A. Training
B. Filing
C. Audit
D. Payment


Q80. Skill development improves:

A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Decision-making
D. All



Q81. Finance Act amendments aim at:

A. Revenue mobilization
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. All


Q82. Digital economy is promoted through:

A. Cash incentives
B. Digital transactions
C. Barter
D. None


Q83. Equalisation levy relates to:

A. Domestic tax
B. Digital transactions
C. GST
D. Audit


Q84. GAAR stands for:

A. General Anti-Avoidance Rules
B. Gross Accounting Rules
C. General Audit Rules
D. None


Q85. GAAR targets:

A. Tax evasion
B. Tax avoidance
C. Compliance
D. Filing



Q86. Faceless penalty scheme ensures:

A. Bias
B. Transparency
C. Delay
D. None


Q87. ITBA system stands for:

A. Income Tax Business Application
B. Income Tax Banking App
C. Internal Tax Board Application
D. None


Q88. ITBA is used for:

A. Assessment
B. Appeals
C. Penalty
D. All


Q89. E-office in ITD ensures:

A. Paperless work
B. Efficiency
C. Transparency
D. All


Q90. Digital signature ensures:

A. Authentication
B. Security
C. Integrity
D. All



Q91. Finance Act amendments are interpreted with:

A. CBDT circulars
B. Case laws
C. Rules
D. All


Q92. CBDT issues:

A. Circulars
B. Instructions
C. Notifications
D. All


Q93. Circulars are binding on:

A. Assessee
B. Department
C. Court
D. None


Q94. Amendments can be:

A. Prospective
B. Retrospective
C. Both
D. None


Q95. Retrospective amendment affects:

A. Future
B. Past
C. Present
D. None



Q96. Computerization reduces:

A. Human error
B. Delay
C. Corruption
D. All


Q97. Data integration helps in:

A. Tracking income
B. Detecting evasion
C. Compliance
D. All


Q98. E-assessment improves:

A. Efficiency
B. Transparency
C. Accountability
D. All


Q99. Vigilance ensures:

A. Discipline
B. Integrity
C. Accountability
D. All


Q100. Overall reforms aim at:

A. Ease of doing business
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. All


✅ ANSWER KEY (Q1–50)

1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-C, 5-B

6-C, 7-B, 8-B, 9-D, 10-A

11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-B

16-D, 17-A, 18-D, 19-C, 20-D

21-A, 22-B, 23-B, 24-B, 25-D

26-D, 27-B, 28-D, 29-B, 30-D

31-D, 32-B, 33-D, 34-A, 35-C

36-D, 37-D, 38-D, 39-B, 40-A

41-B, 42-A, 43-A, 44-D, 45-B

46-A, 47-D, 48-A, 49-D, 50-D

✅ ANSWER KEY (Q51–100)

51-B, 52-B, 53-C, 54-C, 55-B

56-B, 57-B, 58-A, 59-B, 60-D

61-D, 62-A, 63-D, 64-D, 65-B

66-A, 67-D, 68-A, 69-D, 70-D

71-A, 72-D, 73-D, 74-B, 75-D

76-A, 77-D, 78-D, 79-A, 80-D

81-D, 82-B, 83-B, 84-A, 85-B

86-B, 87-A, 88-D, 89-D, 90-D

91-D, 92-D, 93-B, 94-C, 95-B

96-D, 97-D, 98-D, 99-D, 100-D

Read More
  • Share This:  
  •  Facebook
  •  Twitter
  •  Google+
  •  Stumble
  •  Digg
Older Posts Home

Read in any language

Popular Posts

  • 🚦FINANCIAL MARKETS AND OPERATIONS 500 MCQ
  • πŸ’°Short Theory on Financial Services & 500 MCQ with answer for Paper C-1
  • πŸ“ŠPublic Private Partnerships (PPP) Auditing Guidelines- 100 MCQs
  • πŸ’£Defence Account Code book - 100 MCQs PC-9
  • πŸ“ŒAudit Planning and Risk Assessment- MCQs

Recent Posts

ads

Categories

  • Mock Test (6)
  • Model Papers (4)
  • Sample Paper-CPD-1 (1)
  • Sample Test Paper (9)
  • quiz-exams (2)

Unordered List

34.2k likes

Like

WhatsApp Channel

28.6k followers

Follow

8.6k subscribers

Subscribe

Pages

  • Appendix-II
  • Appendix-III
  • CPD All Stages
  • SOGE Part-I and Part-II
  • Revenue Audit Exam ( RAE)
  • Incentive Exam

Text Widget

Blog Archive

Powered by Blogger.

Syllabus

  • SAS Exam Part-I
  • SAS Exam Part-II
  • Revenue Audit Exam(RAE)
  • Incentive Exam
  • CPD All Stages
  • A/c Dept Appendix-II/IIA
  • A/c Dept Appendix-III/IIIA
  • A/c Dept Appendix-IV
  • Embassy Audit Exam
  • UN Audit Exam

Navigation

  • About Us
  • Contact Us
  • Disclaimer

SSC-BANK-RAILWAY EXAM

  • EXAM PRACTICE HUB

A/c Dept Appendix-II,III,IV

  • Appendix-II (45)
  • Appendix-II -Paper-1 (42)
  • Appendix-III (5)

Subject wise Index

  • (CPD-I Paper-1) (5)
  • Accounting Principles (1)
  • Accounting Process (1)
  • Accounting Standards (1)

Followers

Page Views

  • Home
  • Previous Year Papers
  • _APPENDIX-IIA-BOOK KEEPING
  • __2020
  • __2021
  • __2022
  • __2024
  • _ShortCodes
  • _SiteMap
  • _Error Page
  • CPD-I Paper-1
  • _Web Doc
  • _Video Doc
  • Download This Template

Latest on Appendix-III/IIIA (Accounts)

Latest on Appendix-II/IIA (Accounts)

Short Notes/ Practical Problems

  • Practical Problems (1)
  • Short Notes (3)

Latest on SAS/SOGE

drop-down list

    Departmental Examination

    πŸ“˜ CPD EXAMINATIONS
    CPD-I
    Paper-1 Paper-2
    CPD-II
    Paper-1 Paper-2
    CPD-III
    Paper-1 Paper-2
    πŸ“• CAG DEPARTMENTAL EXAMINATIONS
    SAS Group-I SAS Group-II RAE Incentive Examination UN Audit IT Audit Defence Audit Embassy Audit
    πŸ“— RAILWAY ACCOUNTS DEPARTMENTAL EXAMINATION
    Appendix-II / IIA Appendix-III / IIIA Appendix-IV Railway Accounts Stores & Stock Verification
    ×

    πŸ“’ Get Daily MCQs

    Join our WhatsApp Channel for Railway Accounts updates.

    Join WhatsApp Channel

    Latest on CPD-I, II & III

    About & Social

    Departmental Exam Master simplifies preparation for departmental promotional exams by providing organized, syllabus-based study material in one place, saving you from the hassle of collecting books, notes, and past papers. It is useful for aspirants across all Government departments like Railway, P&T, Audit, Income Tax, and Central Excise—and everything here is completely free, with no login or subscription required.

      Sample Test Papers

      Model Papers

      Popular Posts

      • APPENDIX-IIA- ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2021
      • APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2020
      • APPENDIX-IIA-ELEMENTARY BOOK KEEPING-2022
      • πŸ“Œ Audit of controls in the Information System- 250 MCQ

      Blog Archive

      Sample Text

      Copyright © Departmental Exam Master | Powered by Blogger
      Design by Hardeep Asrani | Blogger Theme by NewBloggerThemes.com | Distributed By Gooyaabi Templates