Showing posts with label RAE. Show all posts
Showing posts with label RAE. Show all posts

27 April 2026

✅ IRCA COACHING TARIFF – 150 PRACTICAL MCQs (NUMERICAL + CASE BASED)

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IRCA COACHING TARIFF – 50 PRACTICAL MCQs (NUMERICAL + CASE BASED)

✅ DIRECT TAX (FINANCE ACT, COMPUTERIZATION, VIGILANCE & TRAINING) - 100 MCQs

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PART 1 (Q1–50) – DIRECT TAX (FINANCE ACT, COMPUTERIZATION, VIGILANCE & TRAINING)

26 April 2026

✅ INCOME TAX (PAN, E-FILING, e-TDS, e-TCS)-100 MCQs

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INCOME TAX (PAN, E-FILING, e-TDS, e-TCS) - 100 MCQs

18 April 2026

📘 Advanced Level Topics: Finance Act Amendments | Computerization | Vigilance | Training-100 MCQs

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📘 MCQs (1–50) — Advanced Level

Topics: Finance Act Amendments | Computerization | Vigilance | Training


🔹 Recent Amendments (Finance Act – Advanced)

1.

Updated return under Section 139(8A) can be filed within:
A. 12 months
B. 24 months
C. 36 months
D. 48 months
Answer: B


2.

Updated return cannot be filed if:
A. Loss is declared
B. Income increased
C. Tax paid
D. Filed voluntarily
Answer: A


3.

Tax on updated return includes:
A. Normal tax
B. Additional tax
C. Interest
D. All
Answer: D


4.

Additional tax for updated return (within 12 months):
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Answer: B


5.

Additional tax (after 12 months but within 24 months):
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: B


6.

Virtual Digital Assets (VDA) taxed under:
A. 30%
B. 20%
C. Slab rate
D. 15%
Answer: A


7.

Loss from VDA can be:
A. Set off
B. Carried forward
C. Not allowed
D. Partially allowed
Answer: C


8.

TDS on VDA transactions is under:
A. 194Q
B. 194S
C. 194C
D. 206C
Answer: B


9.

Rate of TDS on VDA:
A. 0.1%
B. 1%
C. 5%
D. 10%
Answer: B


10.

New tax regime under Section 115BAC is:
A. Mandatory
B. Optional
C. Applicable only to companies
D. Not applicable
Answer: B


11.

Standard deduction allowed in new regime (latest amendment):
A. Not allowed
B. ₹25,000
C. ₹50,000
D. ₹75,000
Answer: C


12.

Rebate under 87A in new regime extended up to:
A. ₹5 lakh
B. ₹6 lakh
C. ₹7 lakh
D. ₹10 lakh
Answer: C


13.

Angel tax now applies to:
A. Residents only
B. Non-residents also
C. Companies only
D. Firms only
Answer: B


14.

Section dealing with unexplained credits:
A. 68
B. 69
C. 70
D. 80C
Answer: A


15.

TCS on foreign remittance increased to:
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 30%
Answer: C


🔹 Computerization in Income Tax Department

16.

Project Insight is related to:
A. Refund processing
B. Data analytics
C. TDS
D. Appeals
Answer: B


17.

CPC stands for:
A. Central Processing Centre
B. Central Payment Cell
C. Computer Processing Cell
D. Central Portal Centre
Answer: A


18.

CPC Bengaluru handles:
A. Appeals
B. Return processing
C. Search cases
D. Prosecution
Answer: B


19.

E-filing portal enables:
A. Return filing
B. Grievance
C. Rectification
D. All
Answer: D


20.

AIS stands for:
A. Annual Information Statement
B. Account Information System
C. Audit Information Sheet
D. Assessment Info Statement
Answer: A


21.

Form 26AS shows:
A. Income
B. Tax credits
C. Deductions
D. Refunds
Answer: B


22.

Faceless appeal scheme ensures:
A. Transparency
B. Speed
C. No human interaction
D. All
Answer: D


23.

DIN (Document Identification Number) ensures:
A. Tracking
B. Transparency
C. Authenticity
D. All
Answer: D


24.

TRACES portal relates to:
A. Returns
B. TDS
C. Appeals
D. Refunds
Answer: B


25.

E-proceedings eliminate:
A. Notices
B. Physical interface
C. Assessment
D. Appeals
Answer: B


🔹 Vigilance (Advanced)

26.

Vigilance in IT Dept is handled by:
A. CBDT
B. CVC
C. Both
D. ITAT
Answer: C


27.

Preventive vigilance focuses on:
A. Punishment
B. Prevention
C. Prosecution
D. Recovery
Answer: B


28.

CVC stands for:
A. Central Vigilance Commission
B. Central Verification Cell
C. Chief Vigilance Council
D. Central Vigilance Committee
Answer: A


29.

Whistleblower protection is governed by:
A. IT Act
B. CVC guidelines
C. CBDT circular
D. Income Tax Act
Answer: B


30.

Vigilance angle includes:
A. Corruption
B. Misconduct
C. Abuse of power
D. All
Answer: D


31.

Departmental inquiry is initiated for:
A. Criminal offence
B. Service misconduct
C. Tax evasion
D. Audit
Answer: B


32.

Minor penalty includes:
A. Dismissal
B. Suspension
C. Warning
D. Removal
Answer: C


33.

Major penalty includes:
A. Warning
B. Censure
C. Dismissal
D. Advice
Answer: C


34.

Charge sheet is issued under:
A. Criminal law
B. Service rules
C. Income Tax Act
D. CPC
Answer: B


35.

Vigilance clearance required for:
A. Promotion
B. Posting
C. Deputation
D. All
Answer: D


🔹 Training (Advanced)

36.

Training institute for IRS officers:
A. NACIN
B. NADT
C. LBSNAA
D. RBI
Answer: B


37.

NADT is located at:
A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Nagpur
D. Chennai
Answer: C


38.

Foundation course conducted at:
A. NADT
B. LBSNAA
C. NACIN
D. CBDT
Answer: B


39.

In-service training aims at:
A. Recruitment
B. Skill upgradation
C. Promotion
D. Retirement
Answer: B


40.

Capacity building commission deals with:
A. Taxation
B. Training
C. Vigilance
D. Audit
Answer: B


41.

Mid-career training is for:
A. New recruits
B. Experienced officers
C. Retired officers
D. Students
Answer: B


42.

Training includes:
A. Law
B. IT systems
C. Soft skills
D. All
Answer: D


43.

E-learning platforms are used for:
A. Recruitment
B. Training
C. Audit
D. Appeals
Answer: B


44.

Competency-based training focuses on:
A. Theory
B. Skills
C. Exams
D. Promotion
Answer: B


45.

CBDT controls:
A. Customs
B. Direct taxes
C. GST
D. RBI
Answer: B


46.

Digital India initiative impacts:
A. Manual filing
B. E-governance
C. Paperwork increase
D. Delay
Answer: B


47.

AI in tax administration is used for:
A. Data mining
B. Risk assessment
C. Compliance monitoring
D. All
Answer: D


48.

Pre-filled return data comes from:
A. AIS
B. 26AS
C. Third-party data
D. All
Answer: D


49.

Faceless penalty scheme ensures:
A. Bias
B. Transparency
C. Delay
D. Manual work
Answer: B


50.

E-verification can be done through:
A. Aadhaar OTP
B. Net banking
C. DSC
D. All
Answer: D

🔹 Recent Amendments (Advanced + Case-Based)

51.

An assessee files updated return after 18 months. Additional tax payable will be:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: B


52.

Updated return cannot be filed if:
A. Search initiated
B. Survey initiated
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C


53.

If updated return reduces tax liability:
A. Allowed
B. Not allowed
C. Allowed with penalty
D. Allowed with approval
Answer: B


54.

VDA taxation disallows deduction of:
A. Brokerage
B. Mining cost
C. Transaction fee
D. All
Answer: D


55.

Gift of VDA is taxable in hands of:
A. Donor
B. Donee
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B


56.

TDS u/s 194S not applicable when transaction below:
A. ₹10,000
B. ₹50,000
C. ₹1,00,000
D. ₹5,000
Answer: B


57.

New regime default for individuals is:
A. Old regime
B. New regime
C. Optional only
D. Not applicable
Answer: B


58.

Switching between regimes allowed:
A. Every year (non-business income)
B. Once only
C. Not allowed
D. Only companies
Answer: A


59.

Angel tax amendment impacts:
A. Listed companies
B. Startups
C. Private companies
D. Both B & C
Answer: D


60.

TCS on LRS applies to:
A. Domestic payments
B. Foreign remittances
C. Salary
D. Interest
Answer: B


🔹 Computerization (Advanced + Application)

61.

AIS includes:
A. Bank interest
B. Securities transactions
C. Foreign remittances
D. All
Answer: D


62.

Mismatch between AIS and return leads to:
A. Automatic penalty
B. Risk flagging
C. Refund rejection
D. Assessment cancellation
Answer: B


63.

DIN is mandatory for:
A. All communications
B. Only notices
C. Only orders
D. Appeals
Answer: A


64.

If communication without DIN:
A. Valid
B. Invalid
C. Partially valid
D. Subject to approval
Answer: B


65.

CPC processes returns using:
A. Manual system
B. Automated system
C. Hybrid
D. None
Answer: B


66.

E-verification failure results in:
A. Invalid return
B. Late fee
C. Penalty
D. Prosecution
Answer: A


67.

Faceless assessment units include:
A. Assessment unit
B. Verification unit
C. Technical unit
D. All
Answer: D


68.

Risk Management Strategy (RMS) is used for:
A. Refund
B. Case selection
C. Appeal
D. Training
Answer: B


69.

Pre-filled ITR data sourced from:
A. AIS
B. 26AS
C. TDS returns
D. All
Answer: D


70.

E-campaign is used for:
A. Enforcement
B. Voluntary compliance
C. Penalty
D. Appeal
Answer: B


🔹 Vigilance (Advanced + Scenario-Based)

71.

Accepting gifts by tax officer leads to:
A. Minor misconduct
B. Major misconduct
C. No issue
D. Warning only
Answer: B


72.

Delay in passing order without reason may attract:
A. Vigilance angle
B. Administrative action
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C


73.

Integrity in public service means:
A. Efficiency
B. Honesty
C. Skill
D. Knowledge
Answer: B


74.

Disproportionate assets case is handled by:
A. CBDT
B. CVC
C. CBI
D. AO
Answer: C


75.

Preventive vigilance includes:
A. Rotation of staff
B. Surprise inspection
C. System improvement
D. All
Answer: D


76.

Vigilance clearance denied if:
A. Pending inquiry
B. Complaint received
C. Charge sheet issued
D. All
Answer: D


77.

Trap cases are related to:
A. Tax evasion
B. Corruption
C. Audit
D. Refund
Answer: B


78.

Departmental proceedings follow:
A. Criminal law
B. Service rules
C. Civil law
D. Tax law
Answer: B


79.

Penalty for misconduct depends on:
A. Severity
B. Intent
C. Evidence
D. All
Answer: D


80.

Suspension is:
A. Punishment
B. Interim measure
C. Final order
D. Advisory
Answer: B


🔹 Training (Advanced + Practical)

81.

Role-based training focuses on:
A. Generic knowledge
B. Job-specific skills
C. Exams
D. Promotion
Answer: B


82.

NADT provides training for:
A. Customs officers
B. IRS officers
C. GST officers
D. Bankers
Answer: B


83.

Continuous learning is essential due to:
A. Static laws
B. Frequent amendments
C. No change
D. Fixed rules
Answer: B


84.

Blended learning includes:
A. Classroom
B. Online
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C


85.

Soft skills training includes:
A. Law
B. Communication
C. Audit
D. Taxation
Answer: B


86.

Capacity building improves:
A. Efficiency
B. Accountability
C. Transparency
D. All
Answer: D


87.

Knowledge management system helps in:
A. Storage
B. Sharing
C. Retrieval
D. All
Answer: D


88.

Training evaluation ensures:
A. Effectiveness
B. Attendance
C. Salary
D. Promotion
Answer: A


89.

Skill gap analysis identifies:
A. Strengths
B. Weaknesses
C. Training needs
D. All
Answer: D


90.

Leadership training focuses on:
A. Control
B. Decision-making
C. Routine work
D. Filing
Answer: B


91.

Ethics training aims to:
A. Improve knowledge
B. Reduce corruption
C. Increase revenue
D. Speed assessment
Answer: B


92.

Digital literacy in tax officers is needed for:
A. Manual work
B. IT systems
C. Filing only
D. Audit only
Answer: B


93.

On-the-job training means:
A. Classroom
B. Practical work
C. Online
D. Theory
Answer: B


94.

Refresher training is for:
A. New recruits
B. Existing staff
C. Retired staff
D. Students
Answer: B


95.

E-office system promotes:
A. Paperwork
B. Digital workflow
C. Delay
D. Manual process
Answer: B


96.

Cybersecurity training is needed due to:
A. Digitalization
B. Manual systems
C. Audit
D. Appeals
Answer: A


97.

Performance appraisal linked training aims at:
A. Promotion
B. Skill improvement
C. Salary
D. Transfer
Answer: B


98.

Learning management system (LMS) is used for:
A. Tax filing
B. Training delivery
C. Audit
D. Recovery
Answer: B


99.

Digital signature ensures:
A. Identity
B. Authenticity
C. Security
D. All
Answer: D


100.

Future of tax administration is driven by:
A. Manual work
B. Technology
C. Paper filing
D. Delay
Answer: B

📘Assessment | Search & Seizure | Appeals & Revision | Settlement | Time Limits 100 MCQs

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📘 100 MCQs  — Advanced Level

Topics: Assessment | Search & Seizure | Appeals & Revision | Settlement | Time Limits


🔹 Assessment Procedures

1.

Summary assessment under Section 143(1) involves:
A. Detailed scrutiny
B. Prima facie adjustments
C. Reassessment
D. Appeal
Answer: B


2.

Notice for scrutiny assessment is issued under:
A. 142(1)
B. 143(2)
C. 147
D. 263
Answer: B


3.

Time limit for issuing 143(2) notice:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months from end of FY
C. 12 months
D. No limit
Answer: B


4.

Best judgment assessment is under:
A. 144
B. 143
C. 147
D. 153
Answer: A


5.

Reassessment is initiated under:
A. 143
B. 147
C. 153
D. 263
Answer: B


6.

Income escaping assessment refers to:
A. Wrong return
B. Non-filing
C. Under-reporting
D. All
Answer: D


7.

Notice under Section 148 is for:
A. Assessment
B. Reassessment
C. Penalty
D. Refund
Answer: B


8.

Faceless assessment scheme aims to:
A. Increase litigation
B. Reduce corruption
C. Increase tax
D. Delay process
Answer: B


9.

Assessment order under scrutiny passed u/s:
A. 143(3)
B. 144
C. 147
D. 153
Answer: A


10.

Return can be revised under:
A. 139(5)
B. 143
C. 147
D. 263
Answer: A


🔹 Search & Seizure

11.

Search is conducted under:
A. 132
B. 133
C. 147
D. 263
Answer: A


12.

Survey is conducted under:
A. 132
B. 133A
C. 147
D. 153
Answer: B


13.

Seizure of assets requires:
A. Suspicion
B. Reason to believe
C. Approval
D. Both B & C
Answer: D


14.

Search authorization is issued by:
A. AO
B. CIT
C. Director/Commissioner
D. ITAT
Answer: C


15.

Block assessment applies to:
A. Normal cases
B. Search cases
C. Appeal cases
D. Refund cases
Answer: B


16.

Section 153A deals with:
A. Normal assessment
B. Search assessment
C. Penalty
D. Refund
Answer: B


17.

Assessment period under search covers:
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 10 years
D. 15 years
Answer: B


18.

Books can be impounded under:
A. 132
B. 133A
C. 131
D. 147
Answer: B


19.

Statement recorded during search is under:
A. 131
B. 132(4)
C. 143
D. 147
Answer: B


20.

Presumption of ownership applies to:
A. Books found
B. Cash found
C. Assets found
D. All
Answer: D


🔹 Appeals & Revision

21.

First appeal lies with:
A. ITAT
B. CIT(A)
C. AO
D. High Court
Answer: B


22.

Time limit for filing appeal to CIT(A):
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Answer: B


23.

Second appeal lies with:
A. High Court
B. ITAT
C. Supreme Court
D. AO
Answer: B


24.

Revision by CIT (prejudicial to revenue):
A. 263
B. 264
C. 147
D. 143
Answer: A


25.

Revision in favour of assessee:
A. 263
B. 264
C. 143
D. 147
Answer: B


26.

Appeal to High Court lies on:
A. Facts
B. Law
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B


27.

Time limit for appeal to ITAT:
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
Answer: B


28.

Order prejudicial to revenue means:
A. Loss of tax
B. Gain of tax
C. Neutral
D. Refund
Answer: A


29.

Revision u/s 263 can be made within:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 4 years
D. No limit
Answer: B


30.

CIT(A) can:
A. Enhance assessment
B. Reduce assessment
C. Confirm
D. All
Answer: D


🔹 Settlement Commission

31.

Settlement Commission is now replaced by:
A. ITAT
B. Interim Board
C. CBDT
D. AO
Answer: B


32.

Application for settlement requires:
A. Full disclosure
B. Partial disclosure
C. No disclosure
D. Estimated income
Answer: A


33.

Minimum additional tax payable required:
A. ₹5 lakh
B. ₹10 lakh
C. ₹25 lakh
D. ₹50 lakh
Answer: D


34.

Settlement order is:
A. Appealable
B. Final
C. Revisable
D. Temporary
Answer: B


35.

Settlement can be rejected if:
A. No disclosure
B. False disclosure
C. Non-cooperation
D. All
Answer: D


🔹 Time Limits

36.

Time limit for completion of assessment u/s 143(3):
A. 6 months
B. 9 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
Answer: C


37.

Time limit for reassessment:
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 10 years
D. Depends
Answer: D


38.

Reopening beyond 3 years requires:
A. AO approval
B. Higher authority approval
C. Court order
D. Assessee consent
Answer: B


39.

Time limit for rectification u/s 154:
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 10 years
Answer: B


40.

Time limit for appeal to High Court:
A. 60 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. 180 days
Answer: C


41.

Assessment time extended in case of:
A. Stay
B. Audit
C. Transfer pricing
D. All
Answer: D


42.

Search assessment time limit is:
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
Answer: B


43.

Time limit for penalty order:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. Depends
Answer: D


44.

Rectification can be done for:
A. Mistake apparent
B. New issue
C. Appeal issue
D. All
Answer: A


45.

Limitation counted from:
A. Date of order
B. End of FY
C. Date of notice
D. Filing date
Answer: B


46.

Delay in appeal can be condoned if:
A. Valid reason
B. No reason
C. Late filing
D. Tax unpaid
Answer: A


47.

Assessment reopened based on:
A. Suspicion
B. Evidence
C. Reason to believe
D. Complaint
Answer: C


48.

Notice under 142(1) is for:
A. Inquiry
B. Penalty
C. Appeal
D. Refund
Answer: A


49.

Failure to comply with notice leads to:
A. Penalty
B. Best judgment
C. Prosecution
D. All
Answer: D


50.

Assessment proceedings conclude with:
A. Notice
B. Order
C. Appeal
D. Refund
Answer: B

🔹 Assessment Procedures (Advanced)

51.

If assessee fails to comply with notices under 142(1) and 143(2), AO shall:
A. Drop proceedings
B. Issue penalty
C. Make best judgment assessment
D. Refer to CIT
Answer: C


52.

Return processed under 143(1) can still be selected for scrutiny:
A. No
B. Yes
C. Only with approval
D. Only for companies
Answer: B


53.

Reassessment requires prior sanction under Section 151 from:
A. AO
B. CIT/PCIT
C. ITAT
D. CBDT
Answer: B


54.

If reassessment notice issued without “reason to believe”:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Partially valid
D. Subject to appeal
Answer: B


55.

Income escaping assessment includes:
A. Excess loss allowed
B. Excess deduction
C. Under-assessed income
D. All
Answer: D


56.

Revised return can be filed before:
A. End of AY
B. Completion of assessment
C. Both
D. Only within 1 year
Answer: C


57.

Assessment proceedings are:
A. Judicial
B. Quasi-judicial
C. Administrative
D. Legislative
Answer: B


58.

Faceless assessment eliminates:
A. Human interface
B. Documentation
C. Notices
D. Appeals
Answer: A


59.

Burden of proof in assessment lies primarily on:
A. AO
B. Assessee
C. CIT
D. Tribunal
Answer: B


60.

Protective assessment is made when:
A. Income certain
B. Doubtful person liable
C. Tax evasion proved
D. Return not filed
Answer: B


🔹 Search & Seizure (Advanced)

61.

Search u/s 132 can be conducted when there is:
A. Suspicion
B. Complaint
C. Reason to believe undisclosed income exists
D. Anonymous tip
Answer: C


62.

During search, authorised officer can:
A. Break open locks
B. Seize documents
C. Examine persons on oath
D. All
Answer: D


63.

Retention of seized documents beyond 30 days requires approval of:
A. AO
B. CIT
C. ITAT
D. CBDT
Answer: B


64.

Presumption under Section 132(4A) applies to:
A. Ownership
B. Truth of contents
C. Signature authenticity
D. All
Answer: D


65.

Search assessment replaces:
A. Regular assessment
B. Reassessment
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: C


66.

If no incriminating material found, addition in search assessment:
A. Allowed
B. Not allowed
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
Answer: B


67.

Survey cannot:
A. Inspect books
B. Record statement on oath
C. Verify cash
D. Enter business premises
Answer: B


68.

Statement during survey has:
A. High evidentiary value
B. No evidentiary value
C. Limited evidentiary value
D. Conclusive value
Answer: C


69.

Seized assets can be adjusted against:
A. Tax
B. Penalty
C. Interest
D. All
Answer: D


70.

Search authorization invalid if:
A. No approval
B. No jurisdiction
C. No reason to believe
D. All
Answer: D


🔹 Appeals & Revision (Advanced)

71.

CIT(A) can admit additional evidence if:
A. AO refused to admit
B. Assessee prevented by sufficient cause
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C


72.

Cross objection can be filed before:
A. CIT(A)
B. ITAT
C. High Court
D. AO
Answer: B


73.

ITAT order can be rectified under:
A. 254(2)
B. 154
C. 263
D. 147
Answer: A


74.

Appeal to Supreme Court lies on:
A. Fact
B. Law
C. Both
D. Only constitutional matters
Answer: B


75.

Revision u/s 263 cannot be done if order is:
A. Erroneous
B. Prejudicial
C. Subject matter of appeal
D. Incorrect
Answer: C


76.

Revision u/s 264 can be initiated by:
A. AO
B. Assessee
C. CIT
D. ITAT
Answer: B


77.

Time limit for filing revision u/s 264:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 4 years
Answer: B


78.

CIT(A) powers are:
A. Co-terminus with AO
B. Limited
C. Advisory
D. Administrative
Answer: A


79.

Enhancement by CIT(A) requires:
A. Approval
B. Notice to assessee
C. Consent
D. Court order
Answer: B


80.

Appeal effect must be given within:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
Answer: B


🔹 Settlement / Interim Board (Advanced)

81.

Settlement requires disclosure of:
A. Known income
B. Undisclosed income
C. Estimated income
D. Future income
Answer: B


82.

Application for settlement once rejected:
A. Can be refiled
B. Cannot be refiled
C. Filed after appeal
D. Filed before AO
Answer: B


83.

Settlement order is binding on:
A. Assessee only
B. Department only
C. Both
D. Courts
Answer: C


84.

Settlement provides immunity from:
A. Tax
B. Interest
C. Penalty & prosecution
D. All
Answer: C


85.

Settlement proceedings abate if:
A. Non-cooperation
B. False disclosure
C. Non-payment
D. All
Answer: D


🔹 Time Limits (Advanced)

86.

Time limit for issuing notice u/s 148 generally:
A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 10 years
D. Depends on amount
Answer: D


87.

Reopening beyond 10 years allowed if income escaped exceeds:
A. ₹10 lakh
B. ₹25 lakh
C. ₹50 lakh
D. ₹1 crore
Answer: C


88.

Time limit for completion of reassessment:
A. 6 months
B. 9 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
Answer: C


89.

Limitation excludes time for:
A. Audit
B. Stay by court
C. Reference to valuation officer
D. All
Answer: D


90.

Penalty proceedings must be initiated:
A. Before assessment
B. During assessment
C. After appeal
D. Anytime
Answer: B


91.

Time limit for passing penalty order depends on:
A. Assessment
B. Appeal
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C


92.

Rectification cannot be done if:
A. Mistake debatable
B. Mistake apparent
C. Clerical error
D. Arithmetic error
Answer: A


93.

Time limit for giving appeal effect can be extended by:
A. AO
B. CIT
C. CBDT
D. ITAT
Answer: B


94.

Time limit for search assessment counted from:
A. Date of search
B. End of FY of search
C. Date of notice
D. Date of seizure
Answer: B


95.

Belated return can be filed up to:
A. End of AY
B. 1 year after AY
C. Before assessment
D. Both A & C
Answer: D


96.

Updated return under 139(8A) can be filed within:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Answer: B


97.

Time limit for revision u/s 263 counted from:
A. Date of order
B. End of FY of order
C. Date of notice
D. Date of appeal
Answer: B


98.

Time limit for filing return under 139(1) for companies:
A. 31 July
B. 31 Oct
C. 30 Sept
D. 31 Dec
Answer: B


99.

Assessment becomes time-barred if not completed within:
A. Prescribed limit
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: A


100.

Limitation provisions ensure:
A. Speedy justice
B. Tax collection
C. Compliance
D. Penalty
Answer: A