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MCQs on Basic Concept of Income Tax, Residential Status & Exempt Income

 MCQs on Basic Concept of Income Tax, Residential Status & Exempt Income


Q1. Income Tax is imposed by             .

(a) State Government                     (b) Central Government

(c) Both of the above                     (d) Constitution of India

 

Q2. Parliament has the power to levy tax on incomes other than.

(a) Exempt Incomes                        (b) Income of poor people

(c) Agricultural Income                 (d) All incomes are taxable

 

Q3. Which Entry of Union List gives the power to Parliament to levy tax on incomes?

    • (a)   Entry 81 of List I to the Seventh schedule
    • (b)    Entry 81 of List II to the Seventh schedule
    • (c)    Entry 82 of List I to the Seventh schedule
    • (d)    Entry 82 of List II to the Seventh schedule


 

Q4. Highest Administrative Authority for Income Tax in India is.

(a) Finance Minister           (b) CBDT

(c) President of India          (d) Director of Income Tax

 

Q5. Income-tax Act, 1961 applies to           .

(a) Whole of India               (b) Whole of India excluding J&K

(c) Maharashtra                   (d) All of the above

 

Q6. The basic source of income-tax law is          .

(a) Income-tax Act, 1961              (b) Income-tax Rules, 1962

(c) Circulars/Notifications          (d) Judgments of Courts

 

Q7. The income Tax Act came into force on            .

(a) 1.4.1961  (b) 1.4.1962        (c) 1.4.1956        (d) 1.4.1965

 

Q8. The income Tax Act contains           sections

(a) XIV              (b) 297                 (c) XV                   (d) 298

 

Q9. The income Tax Act contains           schedules.

(a) XIV              (b) 297                (c) XV                   (d) 298


Q10. Proviso gives          to the main provision.                              

 (a) Clarification                                   (b) Exceptions

(c) Proper Administration                 (d) None of these


Q15. Part 3 of schedule I of The Finance Act, 2018 gives rate of advance tax payable for the AY .

(a) 2018-19        (b) 2019-20        (c) 2017-18         (d) 2016-17

 

Q16. Notifications issued by CBDT are binding on           .

(a) Assessee                                        (b) Income tax authority

(c) Both of the above                               (d) None of the above

 

Q17. Circulars issued by CBDT are binding on .

(a) Assessee                                        (b) Income tax authority

(c) Both of the above                               (d) None of the above

 

Q18. Circulars are issued by the CBDT to            the scope & meaning of the provisions of Law.

(a) Clarify the doubts                          (b) Exceptions

(c) Proper Administration                 (d) None of these

 

Q19. As per Section 2(7), “Assesses” means           a person

    • (a)   By whom any tax or other sum of money is payable
    • (b)   Against whom a proceeding has been taken under the act
    • (c)   A person deemed to be an assessee in default
    • (d)    All of the above

 

Q20. A person includes         .

(a) Individual & HUF                          (b) Firm & Company

(c) AOP/BOI, LA, Every AJP               (d) All of the above.

 

Q21. Every assessee is a person, & every person is          .

(a) Also an assessee                      (b) Need not be an assessee

 

Q22. The term “Person” includes          .

(a) Registered Firm                            (b) Unregistered Firm

(c) Both of (a) & (b)                            (d) None of (a) or (b)

 

Q23. Association of persons consists of          .

(a) Individuals (only)                        (b) Company

(c) Any Person other than (a)           (d) Any kind of person


 

 


Q24. Body of  Individuals consists of.........

(a) Individuals (only)                        (b) Company

(c) Any Person other than (a)           (d) Any kind of person


 

 

Q11. Explanation gives            to the main provision.                      

 

Q25. As per Section 2(31), the following is not included in

(a) Clarification                                   (b) Exceptions

(c) Proper Administration                 (d) None of these

 

Q12. Part 1 of schedule I of the Finance Act, 2018 gives rate of income tax for AY               .

(a) 2018-19        (b) 2019-20          (c) 2017-18         (d) 2016-17

 

Q13. Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by         .

(a) Lok Sabha                      (b) Both Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

(c)   Both House of Parliament & signed by President.

(d)    Both House of Parliament & signed by Prime Minister.

 

Q14. Part 2 of schedule of I of the Finance Act, 2018 gives rate of tax deductible of source for the PY        .


(a) 2018-19      (b) 2019-20        (c) 2017-18        (d) 2016-17

the definition of ‘person’.

(a)   Individual       (b) HUF        (c) Company            (d) Minor

 

Q26. A municipal corporation legally entitled to manage & control a municipal fund is taxable in the status of :

(a) Individual        (b) AOP         (c) LA                        (d) AJP

 

Q27. A & B are legal heirs of C. After death of C, A & B carry on his business without entering into a partnership. What is their Status?

(a) Company   (b) LLP   (c) AOP                       (d) Firm

 

Q28. As per sec. 2(24) definition of ‘income’ is:

(a) Inclusive (b) Exhaustive (c) Exclusive (d) Descriptive


 

1: d

2: c

3: c

4: b

5: a

6: a

7: b

8: d

9: a

10: b

11: a

12: b

13: c

14: a

15: b

16: c

17: b

18: a

19: d

20: d

21: b

22: c

23: d

24: a

25: d

26: c

27: c

28: a


Q29. A domestic company means .

(a)   Indian company only

(b)    Both Indian company & foreign company

(c)     Both Indian company & a foreign company having business connection in India

(d)    Both Indian company & a foreign company which has made the prescribed arrangement for declaration & payment of dividends in India out of the income chargeable to tax in India.

 

Q30. ‘Income’ includes the following types                   .

(a) Legal             (b) Illegal                 (c) Both              (d) None

 

Q31. ‘Income’ u/s 2(24) includes          .

(i)   Profits of any business carried on by a person.

(ii)       Any advance money forfeited in the course of negotiations for transfer of capital asset.

Choose the correct option:

(a) Both (i) & (ii)                                (b) Only (i)

(c) Only (ii)                                          (d) Neither (i) nor (ii).

 

Q32. Which of the following income is not included in the term ‘income’ ?

(a) Profit & gains (b) Dividend       (c) Profit in lieu of salary

(d) Reimbursement of travelling expenses

 

Q33. Cash gift received from a non-relative is regarded as income. But Exempt amount is           p.a.

(a) Rs. 25,000 (b) Rs. 75,000 (c) Rs. 50,000 (d) Rs. 25,000

 

*Q34. What is not included in taxable Income ?

(a)   Income from smuggling activity

(b)    Casual income

(c)   Capital Receipt, except gains on transfer of capital asset

(d)    Income received in kind.

 

*Q35. A & Co. received Rs. 2 lacs as compensation from B & Co. for premature termination of contract of agency. Amount so received is .

(a)   Capital receipt & taxable

(b)    Capital receipt & not taxable

(c)    Revenue receipt & taxable

(d)    Revenue receipt & not taxable

 

*Q36. Mr. P has taken a loan of Rs. 5,00,000 from HDFC bank for purchasing a car. His rental income is Rs. 50,000 pm out of which Rs. 5,000 pm directly goes to the bank as an instalment of loan. Discuss the tax treatment.

(a)   Rs. 5,000 p.m is treated as diversion of Income.

(b)    Rs. 5,000 p.m is an application of income.

(c)    Rs. 5,000 p.m is not treated as his income.

(d)    None of the above.

 

Q37. Year in which income is taxable is known as & year in which income is earned is known as .

(a) PY, AY            (b) AY, PY              (c) AY, AY           (d) PY, PY

 

Q38. Pick-the correct one.

(a)   AY & PY are same concepts.

(b)    AY is the year next to the PY.

(c)    PY is the year next to the AY.

(d)    None of the above


Q39. Assessment Year is the period of 12 month commencing on 1st day of .

(a) April every year            (b) December every year

(c) July every year               (d) January every year

 

*Q40. Previous Year can be a period of            .

(a) > 12 months or < 12 months       (b) only 12 months

(c) 12 months or < 12 months          (d) 12 months.

 

Q41. Assessment year can be a period of          .

(a) > 12 months or < 12 months       (b) only 12 months

(c) 12 months or < 12 months          (d) 12 months.

 

Q42. Mr. P sets up a new business on 15.7.2018 & he commenced his business from 1.2.2019. First PY shall be: (a) 15.7.2018 to 31.3.2019                                                (b) PY 2018-19

(c) 1.2.2018 to 31.3.2019                    (d) PY 2019-20

 

*Q43. First previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31.3.2019 would be           .

(a) Start from 1.4.2018 & end on 31.03.2019

(b) Start from 31.3.2019 & will end on 31.3.2019

(c) Start from 1.1.2019 & end on 31.12.2019

(d) Start from 1.1.2019 & end on 31.3.2019

 

Q44. All Assessees are required to follow:

(a)   Uniform PY which must be calendar year only

(b)   Uniform PY which must be FY only

(c)   Any period of 12 months as previous year

(d)   Period starting from 1st July to 30th June as PY

 

Q45. A person follows Calendar year for accounting purpose. For taxation, he has to follow      

(a)   Calendar year only 1 Jan to 31 December

(b)   FY only - 1 April to 31 March

(c)   Any Calendar or FY as per his choice

(d)    He will follow extended year from 1st January to next 31st March (a period of 15 months)

 

Q46. Mr. P. maintains his accounts of the basis of calendar year. For PY 2018-19, his AY shall be.

(a) 2018-19           (b) 2018            (c) 2019-20          (d) 2019

 

Q47. In which of the following cases, income of PY is assessable in the previous year itself.

(a) A persons leaving India               (b) Salaried Employee

(c) Illegal business                            (d) Charitable institution

 

*Q48. If the master of the ship belonging to a NR could not file return of income before the departure of ship from India then it can be filed after the ship has left India but within days.

(a) 30                       (b) 45                       (c) 60                   (d) 90

 

*Q49. In case of shipping business of NR, Income =

(a)   10% of the fare & freight collected by the ship.

(b)   20% of the fare & freight collected by the ship.

(c)   25% of the fare & freight collected by the ship.

(d)   7.5% of the fare & freight collected by the ship.

 

Q50. Income of NR from shipping business in India is taxed

(a) 30% + SC + HEC             (b) 40% + SC + HEC


(c) 50% + SC + HEC             (d) 60% + SC + HE


Answer keys

29-D, 30-c, 31-a, 32-d, 33-c,34-c,35-a,

36-b,37-b,38-b39-a,40-c,41-b, 42-a, 

43-b, 44-b, 45-b, 46-c, 47-a, 48-a, 49-d, 50-b

  

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