Showing posts with label SAS-Group-I. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SAS-Group-I. Show all posts

12 April 2026

📌PENSION (100 MCQs) (Includes numerical + case-based questions

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📌PENSION (100 MCQs)

(Includes numerical + case-based questions — CCS Pension Rules oriented)


  1. Pension is:
    A) Reward
    B) Deferred wage
    C) Allowance
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  2. Minimum qualifying service for pension is:
    A) 5 years
    B) 10 years
    C) 20 years
    D) 25 years
    Answer: B
  3. Full pension is admissible after:
    A) 20 years
    B) 30 years
    C) 33 years
    D) 35 years
    Answer: C
  4. Pension is calculated on:
    A) Last pay drawn
    B) Average pay
    C) Both (as applicable)
    D) Basic pay only
    Answer: C
  5. Maximum pension is:
    A) 50% of pay
    B) 40% of pay
    C) 60% of pay
    D) 100% of pay
    Answer: A
  6. Gratuity is paid under:
    A) Pension rules
    B) Leave rules
    C) Audit rules
    D) Contract Act
    Answer: A
  7. Retirement gratuity max limit:
    A) ₹10 lakh
    B) ₹20 lakh
    C) ₹25 lakh
    D) ₹30 lakh
    Answer: B
  8. Pension is payable:
    A) Monthly
    B) Yearly
    C) Quarterly
    D) Half-yearly
    Answer: A
  9. Family pension is given to:
    A) Employee
    B) Family
    C) Employer
    D) Auditor
    Answer: B
  10. Commutation means:
    A) Reduction
    B) Lump sum payment
    C) Increment
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  11. Maximum commutation allowed:
    A) 30%
    B) 40%
    C) 50%
    D) 60%
    Answer: B
  12. Pension starts from:
    A) Date of retirement
    B) Next day of retirement
    C) Date of application
    D) Date of sanction
    Answer: B
  13. Qualifying service excludes:
    A) Duty
    B) Leave with pay
    C) EOL without medical
    D) Training
    Answer: C
  14. Voluntary retirement minimum service:
    A) 10 years
    B) 15 years
    C) 20 years
    D) 25 years
    Answer: C
  15. Superannuation age:
    A) 58
    B) 60
    C) 62
    D) 65
    Answer: B
  16. Pension is revised by:
    A) CPC
    B) Budget
    C) Audit
    D) Court
    Answer: A
  17. Dearness Relief is:
    A) Fixed
    B) Variable
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: B
  18. Pension is subject to:
    A) Audit
    B) Rules
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  19. Provisional pension is:
    A) Temporary
    B) Permanent
    C) Fixed
    D) Bonus
    Answer: A
  20. Pension is taxable:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) Conditional
    Answer: A


  1. Last pay = ₹60,000. Full pension = ?
    A) ₹20,000
    B) ₹25,000
    C) ₹30,000
    D) ₹35,000
    Answer: C
  2. Qualifying service = 20 years, full = 33 years. Pension = ?
    A) 20/33 × full pension
    B) 33/20 × full pension
    C) Half
    D) Double
    Answer: A
  3. Last pay ₹50,000, QS 33 yrs → pension =
    A) ₹20,000
    B) ₹25,000
    C) ₹30,000
    D) ₹15,000
    Answer: B
  4. Last pay ₹40,000 → pension =
    A) ₹15,000
    B) ₹20,000
    C) ₹10,000
    D) ₹25,000
    Answer: B
  5. QS = 16.5 years → rounded to:
    A) 16
    B) 17
    C) 18
    D) 15
    Answer: B
  6. QS = 16.4 years → rounded to:
    A) 16
    B) 17
    C) 18
    D) 15
    Answer: A
  7. Max gratuity ₹20 lakh, calculated ₹22 lakh → payable:
    A) ₹22 lakh
    B) ₹20 lakh
    C) ₹18 lakh
    D) ₹25 lakh
    Answer: B
  8. Commutation 40% of ₹30,000 =
    A) ₹10,000
    B) ₹12,000
    C) ₹15,000
    D) ₹8,000
    Answer: B
  9. Remaining pension after commutation:
    A) ₹18,000
    B) ₹20,000
    C) ₹15,000
    D) ₹12,000
    Answer: A
  10. DR on pension ₹20,000 @ 10% =
    A) ₹1,000
    B) ₹2,000
    C) ₹3,000
    D) ₹500
    Answer: B
  11. Gratuity = 1/4 × last pay × QS (6-monthly periods). QS=20 yrs → periods =
    A) 20
    B) 40
    C) 30
    D) 10
    Answer: B
  12. Last pay ₹50,000, periods 40 → gratuity =
    A) ₹5 lakh
    B) ₹10 lakh
    C) ₹15 lakh
    D) ₹20 lakh
    Answer: B
  13. QS = 33 yrs, last pay ₹70,000 → pension =
    A) ₹30,000
    B) ₹35,000
    C) ₹25,000
    D) ₹40,000
    Answer: B
  14. Pension reduced by commutation restored after:
    A) 10 yrs
    B) 12 yrs
    C) 15 yrs
    D) 20 yrs
    Answer: C
  15. QS = 10 yrs → pension eligibility:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) Conditional
    Answer: A
  16. QS = 9 yrs → pension:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) Conditional
    Answer: B
  17. Family pension rate (normal):
    A) 50%
    B) 30%
    C) 40%
    D) 60%
    Answer: B
  18. Enhanced family pension:
    A) 30%
    B) 40%
    C) 50%
    D) 60%
    Answer: C
  19. Last pay ₹80,000 → family pension (30%) =
    A) ₹20,000
    B) ₹24,000
    C) ₹30,000
    D) ₹40,000
    Answer: B
  20. Enhanced FP ₹80,000 →
    A) ₹24,000
    B) ₹30,000
    C) ₹40,000
    D) ₹50,000
    Answer: C
  21. Pension = ₹25,000, commuted 40% → lump sum depends on:
    A) Age factor
    B) Service
    C) Pay
    D) DR
    Answer: A
  22. QS = 25 yrs → proportion =
    A) 25/33
    B) 33/25
    C) 1/2
    D) 2/3
    Answer: A
  23. Last pay ₹66,000, QS 33 yrs → pension:
    A) ₹30,000
    B) ₹33,000
    C) ₹25,000
    D) ₹20,000
    Answer: B
  24. Gratuity formula uses:
    A) 1/2
    B) 1/4
    C) 1/3
    D) 1/5
    Answer: B
  25. QS counted in gratuity is:
    A) Years
    B) Half-years
    C) Months
    D) Days
    Answer: B
  26. Minimum pension is:
    A) ₹9,000
    B) ₹10,000
    C) ₹8,000
    D) ₹7,500
    Answer: A
  27. Last pay ₹18,000 → pension =
    A) ₹9,000
    B) ₹8,000
    C) ₹10,000
    D) ₹7,000
    Answer: A
  28. Pension revision applies to:
    A) Existing pensioners
    B) New only
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  29. QS = 30 yrs → pension proportion =
    A) 30/33
    B) 33/30
    C) 1/2
    D) 2/3
    Answer: A
  30. QS = 33 yrs → proportion =
    A) Full
    B) Half
    C) Double
    D) Partial
    Answer: A


  1. Pension authority is:
    A) Head of office
    B) PAO
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  2. Pension is subject to:
    A) Good conduct
    B) Audit
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  3. Pension can be withheld for:
    A) Misconduct
    B) Good work
    C) Promotion
    D) Transfer
    Answer: A
  4. Family pension payable to:
    A) Spouse
    B) Children
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  5. Pension is revised after:
    A) CPC
    B) Audit
    C) Court
    D) None
    Answer: A
  6. Commutation factor depends on:
    A) Age
    B) Pay
    C) Service
    D) DR
    Answer: A
  7. Pension is:
    A) Property right
    B) Charity
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: A
  8. Pension rules governed by:
    A) CCS Rules
    B) IPC
    C) CPC
    D) None
    Answer: A
  9. Pension payable till:
    A) Death
    B) Retirement
    C) Promotion
    D) Transfer
    Answer: A
  10. Family pension payable till:
    A) Death
    B) Remarriage (conditions apply)
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  11. Pension is paid through:
    A) Bank
    B) Cash
    C) Cheque
    D) Audit
    Answer: A
  12. Pension includes:
    A) Basic
    B) DR
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  13. Pension is part of:
    A) Salary
    B) Social security
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: B
  14. Pension records maintained by:
    A) Accounts
    B) HR
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  15. Pension dispute goes to:
    A) Court
    B) Tribunal
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  16. Pension ensures:
    A) Welfare
    B) Security
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  17. Pension is reduced by:
    A) Commutation
    B) DR
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: A
  18. Pension restored after:
    A) 10 yrs
    B) 15 yrs
    C) 20 yrs
    D) 12 yrs
    Answer: B
  19. Pension is revised for inflation via:
    A) DR
    B) DA
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: A
  20. Pension payment order is:
    A) PPO
    B) PPA
    C) PPR
    D) PPP
    Answer: A
  21. Pension is calculated by:
    A) Accounts office
    B) Employer
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  22. Pension includes commutation option:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) Conditional
    Answer: A
  23. Pension can be revised:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) Conditional
    Answer: A
  24. Pension is:
    A) Fixed
    B) Variable
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  25. Pension must be:
    A) Paid timely
    B) Audited
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  26. Pension is part of:
    A) Service benefits
    B) Salary
    C) Audit
    D) Law
    Answer: A
  27. Pension rules are:
    A) Mandatory
    B) Optional
    C) Flexible
    D) None
    Answer: A
  28. Pension errors corrected by:
    A) Audit
    B) Authority
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  29. Pension calculation uses:
    A) Pay
    B) Service
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  30. Pension ensures:
    A) Income
    B) Security
    C) Stability
    D) All
    Answer: D
  31. Pension affects:
    A) Family
    B) Economy
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  32. Pension must comply with:
    A) Rules
    B) Laws
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  33. Pension audit ensures:
    A) Accuracy
    B) Compliance
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  34. Pension system ensures:
    A) Fairness
    B) Security
    C) Welfare
    D) All
    Answer: D
  35. Pension errors impact:
    A) Payment
    B) Service
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  36. Pension is lifelong benefit:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) Conditional
    Answer: A
  37. Pension is linked to:
    A) Service
    B) Pay
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  38. Pension is calculated as per:
    A) Rules
    B) Orders
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  39. Pension is fundamental to:
    A) Welfare state
    B) Economy
    C) Service
    D) Law
    Answer: A
  40. Pension ultimately ensures:
    A) Security
    B) Stability
    C) Welfare
    D) All
    Answer: D

April 12, 2026
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10 April 2026

✅ PAY FIXATION (100 MCQs)

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✅ PAY FIXATION (100 MCQs)


  1. Pay fixation primarily refers to:
    A) Salary payment
    B) Determination of initial pay
    C) Allowances
    D) Pension
    Answer: B
  2. Pay fixation on promotion is governed by:
    A) FR 22(I)(a)(1)
    B) FR 56
    C) FR 9
    D) FR 26
    Answer: A
  3. Pay is defined under:
    A) FR 9(21)(a)(i)
    B) FR 22
    C) FR 26
    D) FR 56
    Answer: A
  4. Increment is defined under:
    A) FR 9
    B) FR 26
    C) FR 22
    D) FR 56
    Answer: B
  5. Pay fixation applies in:
    A) Appointment
    B) Promotion
    C) Transfer
    D) All
    Answer: D
  6. Basic pay includes:
    A) DA
    B) Special pay
    C) Pay in pay matrix
    D) HRA
    Answer: C
  7. Pay matrix introduced by:
    A) 5th CPC
    B) 6th CPC
    C) 7th CPC
    D) 8th CPC
    Answer: C
  8. Level in pay matrix replaces:
    A) Grade pay
    B) DA
    C) HRA
    D) Bonus
    Answer: A
  9. Minimum pay is:
    A) ₹18000
    B) ₹20000
    C) ₹25000
    D) ₹30000
    Answer: A
  10. Annual increment rate is:
    A) 2%
    B) 3%
    C) 4%
    D) 5%
    Answer: B
  11. Date of increment is:
    A) 1 Jan & 1 July
    B) 1 April
    C) 1 March
    D) 1 August
    Answer: A
  12. Pay fixation on promotion is:
    A) Automatic
    B) Optional
    C) Fixed
    D) Temporary
    Answer: B
  13. Option for fixation must be exercised within:
    A) 1 month
    B) 3 months
    C) 6 months
    D) 1 year
    Answer: A
  14. Notional fixation means:
    A) Actual payment
    B) Hypothetical pay
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: B
  15. MACP stands for:
    A) Modified Assured Career Progression
    B) Monthly Career Progression
    C) Maximum Career Pay
    D) None
    Answer: A
  16. MACP gives:
    A) Promotion
    B) Financial upgradation
    C) Bonus
    D) Pension
    Answer: B
  17. Pay protection applies when:
    A) Promotion
    B) Transfer to lower post
    C) Reversion
    D) All
    Answer: D
  18. Stepping up of pay occurs when:
    A) Junior gets more pay
    B) Senior gets more pay
    C) Equal pay
    D) Lower pay
    Answer: A
  19. Personal pay is:
    A) Regular pay
    B) Extra pay to protect loss
    C) Allowance
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  20. Special pay is:
    A) Regular pay
    B) Additional pay for special duty
    C) Pension
    D) Allowance
    Answer: B


  1. Promotion fixation involves:
    A) Same pay
    B) Next higher cell
    C) Lower pay
    D) Fixed pay
    Answer: B
  2. One increment is given:
    A) Before promotion
    B) After promotion
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: A
  3. FR 22 applies to:
    A) Leave
    B) Pay fixation
    C) Pension
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
  4. Fixation under MACP gives:
    A) Promotion
    B) Same duties
    C) Financial benefit
    D) None
    Answer: C
  5. Pay fixation in same level results in:
    A) No change
    B) Increment
    C) Decrement
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  6. Option for fixation allows:
    A) Immediate fixation
    B) Deferred fixation
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  7. Deferred fixation is beneficial when:
    A) Increment due
    B) No increment
    C) Promotion
    D) Transfer
    Answer: A
  8. Pay fixation on deputation ensures:
    A) Lower pay
    B) Pay protection
    C) No pay
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  9. Fixation on re-employment ensures:
    A) Full pay
    B) Adjusted pay
    C) Bonus
    D) Pension
    Answer: B
  10. Fixation in lower post gives:
    A) Increment
    B) Protection
    C) Reduction
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  11. Fixation on direct recruitment is:
    A) Minimum pay
    B) Maximum pay
    C) Average pay
    D) None
    Answer: A
  12. Fixation on absorption is:
    A) New pay
    B) Protected pay
    C) Reduced pay
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  13. Increment is withheld when:
    A) Good performance
    B) Penalty
    C) Promotion
    D) Transfer
    Answer: B
  14. Withholding increment is:
    A) Punishment
    B) Reward
    C) Bonus
    D) Allowance
    Answer: A
  15. Advance increment is given for:
    A) Promotion
    B) Qualification
    C) Transfer
    D) Leave
    Answer: B
  16. Fixation under disciplinary penalty may:
    A) Increase pay
    B) Reduce pay
    C) Maintain pay
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  17. Pay anomaly arises due to:
    A) Equal pay
    B) Junior drawing more
    C) Senior drawing more
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  18. Stepping up requires:
    A) Same cadre
    B) Same pay level
    C) Same seniority
    D) All
    Answer: D
  19. Pay fixation under ACP/MACP differs in:
    A) Promotion
    B) Financial benefit
    C) Duties
    D) None
    Answer: B
  20. Fixation on merger of pay scales ensures:
    A) Loss
    B) Protection
    C) Reduction
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  21. Fitment factor in 7th CPC is:
    A) 2.57
    B) 2.00
    C) 3.00
    D) 1.86
    Answer: A
  22. Fixation involves multiplication by:
    A) 2.57
    B) 2.00
    C) 3.00
    D) 1.86
    Answer: A
  23. Revised pay is fixed by:
    A) Rounding
    B) Nearest cell
    C) Average
    D) None
    Answer: B
  24. Pay matrix is:
    A) Table
    B) Chart
    C) Structured pay levels
    D) None
    Answer: C
  25. Grade pay replaced by:
    A) Level
    B) DA
    C) HRA
    D) Bonus
    Answer: A
  26. Pay fixation on leave:
    A) Stops
    B) Continues
    C) Reduces
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  27. Leave without pay affects:
    A) Increment
    B) Pay
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  28. Suspension pay is:
    A) Full pay
    B) Subsistence allowance
    C) Bonus
    D) Pension
    Answer: B
  29. Pay on reinstatement is:
    A) Full
    B) Partial
    C) As decided
    D) None
    Answer: C
  30. Fixation must be:
    A) Arbitrary
    B) Rule-based
    C) Random
    D) Optional
    Answer: B


  1. Pay protection on deputation ensures:
    A) Equal pay
    B) Higher pay
    C) No loss
    D) Bonus
    Answer: C
  2. Deputation allowance is:
    A) Pay
    B) Allowance
    C) Bonus
    D) Pension
    Answer: B
  3. Foreign service pay includes:
    A) Allowances
    B) Pay
    C) Bonus
    D) Pension
    Answer: B
  4. Fixation on promotion to identical scale:
    A) Increment
    B) No change
    C) Reduction
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  5. Pay fixation is verified by:
    A) Audit
    B) Supplier
    C) Court
    D) Police
    Answer: A
  6. Erroneous fixation leads to:
    A) Recovery
    B) Bonus
    C) Increment
    D) Promotion
    Answer: A
  7. Recovery of excess pay is governed by:
    A) Court rulings
    B) FR rules
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  8. Fixation on promotion with penalty:
    A) Full benefit
    B) Reduced benefit
    C) No benefit
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  9. Advance increments are:
    A) Permanent
    B) Temporary
    C) Conditional
    D) Bonus
    Answer: C
  10. Increment is earned after:
    A) 6 months
    B) 1 year
    C) 2 years
    D) 3 months
    Answer: B
  11. Extraordinary leave affects:
    A) Increment
    B) Pay
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  12. Pay fixation on absorption abroad:
    A) Reduced
    B) Protected
    C) Fixed
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  13. Pay anomaly committee deals with:
    A) Leave
    B) Pay issues
    C) Pension
    D) Audit
    Answer: B
  14. Pay fixation is effective from:
    A) Date of promotion
    B) Date of joining
    C) Date of order
    D) Both A & B
    Answer: D
  15. Fixation involves rounding off:
    A) Lower
    B) Higher cell
    C) Average
    D) None
    Answer: B
  16. Fixation is subject to:
    A) Audit
    B) Approval
    C) Rules
    D) All
    Answer: D
  17. Pay revision occurs after:
    A) CPC
    B) Budget
    C) Audit
    D) None
    Answer: A
  18. Fixation errors are corrected by:
    A) Audit
    B) Authority
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  19. Pay fixation is part of:
    A) Service matters
    B) Legal matters
    C) Procurement
    D) Audit
    Answer: A
  20. Pay fixation affects:
    A) Pension
    B) Allowances
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  21. Higher qualification increment is:
    A) Automatic
    B) Conditional
    C) Mandatory
    D) None
    Answer: B
  22. Fixation in officiating post:
    A) Full pay
    B) Temporary pay
    C) No pay
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  23. Fixation in substantive post:
    A) Permanent
    B) Temporary
    C) Bonus
    D) None
    Answer: A
  24. Pay fixation under 6th CPC used:
    A) Grade pay
    B) Level
    C) Allowance
    D) Bonus
    Answer: A
  25. Pay fixation under 7th CPC uses:
    A) Grade pay
    B) Level
    C) Allowance
    D) Bonus
    Answer: B
  26. Fitment formula ensures:
    A) Loss
    B) Gain
    C) Neutralization
    D) Bonus
    Answer: C
  27. Pay matrix cell progression is:
    A) Horizontal
    B) Vertical
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: A
  28. Promotion moves employee:
    A) Same level
    B) Higher level
    C) Lower level
    D) None
    Answer: B
  29. MACP moves employee:
    A) Same duties
    B) Higher level
    C) Lower level
    D) None
    Answer: B
  30. Fixation is recorded in:
    A) Service book
    B) Audit
    C) Court
    D) Supplier
    Answer: A
  31. Pay revision arrears are:
    A) Paid
    B) Not paid
    C) Conditional
    D) Bonus
    Answer: A
  32. Fixation affects DA:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) None
    Answer: A
  33. DA is calculated on:
    A) Basic pay
    B) Gross pay
    C) Net pay
    D) Bonus
    Answer: A
  34. Pay fixation error detection is by:
    A) Audit
    B) Employee
    C) Employer
    D) All
    Answer: D
  35. Fixation rules are under:
    A) FR/SR
    B) IPC
    C) CPC
    D) None
    Answer: A
  36. Pay fixation is administrative function:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Judicial
    D) None
    Answer: A
  37. Fixation disputes go to:
    A) Court
    B) Tribunal
    C) Authority
    D) All
    Answer: D
  38. Pay fixation is linked to:
    A) Seniority
    B) Promotion
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  39. Pay fixation must ensure:
    A) Fairness
    B) Equity
    C) Consistency
    D) All
    Answer: D
  40. Fixation rules are:
    A) Flexible
    B) Mandatory
    C) Optional
    D) None
    Answer: B
  41. Fixation mistakes affect:
    A) Pension
    B) Allowances
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  42. Pay fixation is checked during:
    A) Audit
    B) Inspection
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  43. Fixation is subject to:
    A) Revision
    B) Correction
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  44. Pay fixation ensures:
    A) Equity
    B) Uniformity
    C) Fairness
    D) All
    Answer: D
  45. Fixation errors can be:
    A) Clerical
    B) Legal
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  46. Fixation affects retirement benefits:
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Partial
    D) None
    Answer: A
  47. Fixation is core part of:
    A) HR
    B) Finance
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  48. Fixation rules apply to:
    A) Govt employees
    B) Private employees
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: A
  49. Fixation ensures compliance with:
    A) Rules
    B) Laws
    C) Both
    D) None
    Answer: C
  50. Pay fixation ultimately ensures:
    A) Equity
    B) Fair pay
    C) Compliance
    D) All
    Answer: D

April 10, 2026
, , , ,

12 January 2025

🎓 GASAB - 100 MCQ

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🎓 MCQ on GASAB

 

Question 1

What does GASB stand for?

A) Governmental Accounting Standards Board

B) Generally Accepted Standards of Accounting and Budgeting

C) Governmental Auditing Standards Board

D) General Accounting Standards Board

 

Answer: A) Governmental Accounting Standards Board

 

Question 2

Which of the following is a primary goal of GASB?

A) To establish auditing standards for government entities

B) To promote transparency and accountability in government financial reporting

C) To provide guidance on budgeting and financial planning

D) To regulate the accounting profession

 

Answer: B) To promote transparency and accountability in government financial reporting

 

Question 3

What type of entities does GASB provide guidance for?

A) Private companies

B) Non-profit organizations

C) Governmental entities

D) All of the above

 

Answer: C) Governmental entities

 

Question 4

Which of the following is a key concept in GASB standards?

A) Matching principle

B) Materiality

C) Fund accounting

D) All of the above

 

Answer: D) All of the above

 

Question 5

Who is responsible for enforcing GASB standards?

A) Federal government

B) State governments

C) GASB itself

D) Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)

 

Answer: A) Federal government

 

Question 6

What is the primary purpose of GASB Statement No. 34?

A) To establish accounting standards for private companies

B) To provide guidance on financial reporting for governmental entities

C) To regulate auditing standards for non-profit organizations

D) To promote transparency in financial reporting for government entities

 

Answer: B) To provide guidance on financial reporting for governmental entities

 

Question 7

Which of the following is a type of fund accounted for by governmental entities?

A) Private-purpose trust fund

B) Permanent fund

C) Special revenue fund

D) All of the above

 

Answer: D) All of the above

 

Question 8

GASB standards require that governmental entities report which of the following?

 

A) Only current-year financial information

B) Comparative financial information for multiple years

C) Budgetary information in addition to financial statements

D) Only financial information for major funds

 

Answer: B) Comparative financial information for multiple years

 

Question 9

What is the name of the conceptual framework that guides GASB's standard-setting process?

A) Financial Accounting Concepts

B) Governmental Accounting Concepts

C) Concepts Statement

D) Framework for Financial Reporting

 

Answer: D) Framework for Financial Reporting

 

Question 10

Which of the following organizations is responsible for setting auditing standards for governmental entities?

A) GASB

B) FASB

C) GAO

D) AICPA

 

Answer: D) AICPA

 

Question 11

What is the purpose of GASB's Codification of Governmental Accounting and Financial Reporting Standards?

A) To provide guidance on auditing standards

B) To establish accounting standards for non-profit organizations

C) To codify existing GASB standards

D) To regulate financial reporting for private companies

 

Answer: C) To codify existing GASB standards

 

Question 12

Which of the following is a characteristic of fund accounting used by governmental entities?

A) Focus on economic resources

B) Focus on budgetary compliance

C) Use of accrual accounting

D) Use of cash accounting

 

Answer: B) Focus on budgetary compliance

 

Question 13

GASB standards require that governmental entities disclose which of the following?

A) Only financial information

B) Only budgetary information

C) Both financial and budgetary information

D) Neither financial nor budgetary information

 

Answer: C) Both financial and budgetary information

 

Question 14

What is the name of the GASB statement that addresses accounting and financial reporting for postemployment benefits other than pensions?

A) GASB Statement No. 43

B) GASB Statement No. 45

C) GASB Statement No. 68

D) GASB Statement No. 73

 

Answer: B) GASB Statement No. 45

 

Question 15

Which of the following is a key objective of GASB's financial reporting model?

A) To provide information for budgetary decision-making

B) To provide information for economic decision-making

C) To provide information for regulatory compliance

D) To provide information for financial statement analysis

 

Answer: B) To provide information for economic decision-making

January 12, 2025
, ,

07 March 2021

MCQ ON Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors.(PC-14)

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MCQ ON Trial Balance and  Rectification of Errors.(PC-14)












March 07, 2021

MCQ ON BANK RECONCILIATION (PC-14)

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March 07, 2021

26 February 2021

Central Government Accounts (Receipts and Payments) Rules, 1983 (PC-21)

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Central Government Accounts (Receipts and Payments) Rules, 1983 

Note: written in bold letters is answer

  1. Central Government Account (Receipts and Payments) Rules, 1983 come into force
    1. 1st January 1983
    2.  1st April 1983
    3. 1st June 1983
    4. 1st April 1984
  2. The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into such Funds, the withdrawal of moneys therefrom, the custody of public moneys other than those credited to such Funds received by or on behalf of the Government of India, their payment into the Public Account of India and the withdrawal of moneys from such Account has been mentioned in
    1. Article 280(2)
    2. Article 283(1)
    3. Article 284(1)
    4. Article 287(3)
  3. Consolidated Fund of India has been referred to in Constitution under
    1. 266(1)
    2. 266(2)
    3. 267(1)
    4. 267(2)
  4. Contingency Fund of India has been established under the
    1. Contingency Fund of India Act, 1949 (49 of 1949)
    2. Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950 (49 of 1950)
    3. Contingency Fund of India Act, 1951 (49 of 1951)
    4. Contingency Fund of India Act, 1952 (49 of 1952)
  5. Contingency Fund of India has been established under the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950 in consistent with the provision of Article
    1. 266(1)
    2. 266(3)
    3. 267(3)
    4. 267(1)
  6. Responsible for establishing and maintaining a technically sound payment-cum-accounting system in the departmentalized accounts offices and for prescribing the rules for regulating the custody, ayment into and withdrawal of money from the Government Account is
    1. Chief Accounting Authority
    2. Accounts Officer
    3. CGA
    4. CAG
  7. Departmental officer means
    1. A Gazetted Officer
    2. Any Government Servant
    3. An officer who maintains the accounts of Government department
    4. An officer of the Government authorised to handle Government money
  8. Public Account of India referred to in
    1. Article 266(2)
    2. Article 266(3)
    3. Article 267(2)
    4. Article 267(3)
  9. Payments relating to certain pensionary benefits of Central Government pensioners are governed by relevant rules
    1. GAR
    2. GFR
    3. Treasury Rules
    4. Departmental Rules
  10. The system of departmentalization of accounts of all transactions (except payments relating to pensionary benefits) of Central Civil, Ministries and Departments was introduced during
    1. 1973-74
    2. 1974-75
    3. 1975-76
    4. 1976-77
  11. State whether true or false: The balances in small coin depots, rupee coins, balances in mint and cash balances held in Post Offices or other departmental offices are reckoned as part of the General Cash balance of the Government.
    1. True
    2. False
  12. Apart from the Officers in charge of Military Treasure Chests, office(s) authorised to perform all or any prescribed part of the duties of a Treasury Officer is/are
    1. Posts and Telegraphs Department
    2. Ministry of Railway
    3. Ministry of Finance
    4. All of the above
  13. The procedure for the safe custody of moneys in the hands of Government officers shall be regulated by the provisions contained
    1. GAR
    2. GFR
    3. R&P
    4. Treasury Rules
  14. All moneys received by or tendered to Government officers on account of revenues or receipts or dues of the Government shall be paid in full into the accredited bank for inclusion in Government Account
    1. same day
    2. next day
    3. next working day
    4. without undue delay
  15. Pay-in-slip is to be maintained in Form
    1. GAR 1
    2. GAR 2
    3. GAR 1A
    4. GAR 2A
  16. Moneys received by or tendered to Government officers on account of revenues or receipts or dues of the Government shall not be utilised to meet departmental expenditure under any circumstances.
    1. True
    2. False
  17. The conditions under which Government moneys may be deposited with a bank other than the Reserve Bank or its agent for the purpose of Government transactions shall be decided by the Government in each case after consultation with the
    1. President
    2. RBI
    3. CAG
    4. Parliament
  18. A cheque drawing D.D.O. functioning under the scheme of departmentalisation of accounts may withdraw money for such purposes as may be prescribed by the
    1. CAG
    2. CGA
    3. Financial Advisor
    4. Ministries/Departments
  19. No withdrawal shall be permitted on a claim for the first of any series of payments of pay and allowances to a Government servant (other than a person newly appointed to Government service) prepared by a DDO unless the claim is supported by a copy of the last pay certificate
    1. Form GAR 2
    2. Form GAR 3
    3. Form GAR 4
    4. Form GAR 5
  20. If a cheque drawing D.D.O. receives information from the Accounts Officer that moneys have been incorrectly withdrawn and that a certain slim should be recovered in respect of any bill passed by him, he shall
    1. undertake the correspondence with Accounts Officer in this regard and recover the amount after response
    2. effect the recovery without delay and without regard to any correspondence undertaken
    3. note down the same for short payment in forth coming payments
    4. Any of the above
  21. A Government officer supplied with funds for expenditure shall be responsible for such funds until an account of them has been rendered to the satisfaction of the
    1. Head of the Department
    2. Accounts Officer
    3. Chief Controller of Accounts
    4. CGA
  22. Pick the incorrect one: Receipts in the form of local cheques, or demand drafts (to be crossed) in favour of Pay and Accounts Officers accepted by non-cheque drawing D.D.Os
    1. need to be entered in the Cash Book
    2. need not be entered in the Cash Book
    3. should be entered in the Register of Valuables
    4. should be remitted into the accredited bank duly supported by challans for credit to Govt. Account.
  23. In order to minimise the balance under 'Traffic Suspense - Cash-in-Transit' at the close of financial year, Ministry of Railways may keep their cash books open for the month of March each year up-to 18th April for N.F.Railway, and in respect of other Indian Railways up-to
    1. 10th April
    2. 15th April
    3. 18th April
    4. 30th April
  24. Head of the Office should verify the cash balance in the cash book and record a signed and dated certificate to that effect.
    1. At periodical interval
    2. At the end of the month
    3. At the beginning of the month
    4. Anytime during a quarter
  25. In case the verification of cash balance is not possible on the last working day of a month, it may be done on the
    1. first working day of the next month before making any transactions on that day
    2. first working day of the next month before or after making any transactions on that day
    3. last working day of the following month combined
    4. date as prescribed by the Head of Office in consultation with Accounts Officer
  26. Every correction made in the cash book should invariably be dated initials by
    1. Cashier
    2. Accountant
    3. Head of the Office
    4. Officer verifying the cash book
  27. State whether true or false: If large number of bank drafts, cheques are received by any departmental office, receipt thereof and remittance into bank need not be entered individual item-wise in the cash book and the total of the daily entries pertaining to the same classification from a register of valuable Form G.A.R. 5 maintained for the purpose is carried to the cash book giving cross reference in the latter to the serial numbers thereof in the former.
    1. True
    2. False
  28. The keys of cash chest must be sent for examination and returned under fresh sealed covers to the respective officer / bank Once a year in
    1. March
    2. April
    3. January
    4. June
  29. No transactions of the Government with a State shall be adjusted against the balance of the Government except in accordance with such directions as may be given by the
    1. CGA on the advice of the CA&G
    2. CAG on the advice of CGA
    3. Parliament
    4. Ministry of Finance
  30. The bank will be kept open for the conduct of Government transactions on a recognised holiday, or beyond normal business hours on any day (e.g. on the last working day of March every year), if so required by
    1. CAG or by any authority or authorities nominated by him.
    2. CGA or by any authority or authorities nominated by him.
    3. RBI
    4. Accountant General or by any authority or authorities nominated by him

General Financial Rules 2017 - Chapter 4: Government Accounts

1.    Accounts of the Union Government shall be prepared by

A.   CGA

B.   C&AG

C.   Financial Advisor of the concerned Ministry/Department

D.   Public Account Committee

2.    Accounts of the Union Government shall be certified by

A.   CGA

B.   C&AG

C.   Financial Advisor of the concerned Ministry/Department

D.   Public Account Committee

3.    Accounts of the Union Government shall be submitted to the President of India, preferably within

A.   1 month of close of the Financial Year

B.   3 months of close of the Financial Year

C.   6 months of close of the Financial Year

D.   9 months of close of the Financial Year

4.    Who shall cause Accounts of the Union Government to be laid before each House of Parliament?

A.   Finance Minister

B.   Union Cabinet

C.   C&AG

D.   President

5.    The Accounts of the Union Government shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, prescribe as given in Article

A.   148

B.   149

C.   150

D.   151

6.    Who is responsible for prescribing the form of accounts of the Union and States, and to frame, or revise, rules and manuals relating thereto on behalf of the President of India on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

A.   Accountant General

B.   CCA

C.   CAA

D.   CGA

7.    Government accounts shall be prepared on

A.   cash basis.

B.   credit basis

C.   accrual basis

D.   any of the above

8.    Government accounts shall be kept in

A.   single part

B.   two parts

C.   three parts

D.   four parts

9.    Pick the incorrect one

A.   Consolidated Fund is divided into two Divisions, namely, ‘Revenue’ and ‘Capital’ divisions.

B.   The Revenue Division comprises two sections namely Receipt Heads (Revenue Account) dealing with the proceeds of taxation and other receipts classified as revenue and the section ‘Expenditure Heads (Revenue Account)’ dealing with the revenue expenditure met therefrom.

C.   The Capital Division comprises two sections, viz., ‘Receipt Heads (Capital Account)’ and ‘Expenditure Heads (Capital Account)’

D.   These sections are in turn divided into sectors such as ‘General Services’, ‘Social and Community Services’, ‘Economic Services’, etc., under which specific functions or services are grouped corresponding to the sectors of classification and which are represented by Major Heads (comprising Sub-Major Heads wherever necessary).

10. Contingency Fund of Union Territories are set up by the Government of India under

A.   Section 48 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1963.

B.   Section 52 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1948

C.   Section 62 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1965

D.   Section 108 of Government of Union Territories Act, 1967

11. Transactions relating to debt (other than those included in Part-I), reserve funds, deposits, advances, suspense, remittances and cash balances shall be recorded in

A.   Consolidated Fund

B.   Contingency Fund

C.   Public Account

D.   Departmental Fund

12. The classification of transaction in Government Accounts shall have closer reference to

A.   Function/Programme/Activity

B.   Department/Ministry

C.   Capital and Revenue

D.   Charged and Voted

13. Classification of Government Accounts consists of

A.   4 tiers

B.   5 tiers

C.   6 tiers

D.   7 tiers

14. The six tiers of Government Accounts are represented by a unique

A.   15 digits’ numeric code.

B.   15 digits’ alpha-numeric code

C.   13 digits’ numeric code.

D.   13 digits’ alpha-numeric code

15. Pick the incorrect one

A.   The List of Major and Minor Heads of Accounts of Union and States is maintained by the Ministry of Finance (Department of Expenditure – Controller General of Accounts)

B.   CGA is authorised to open a new head of account on the advice of the C&AG under the Article 150 of the Constitution.

C.   Ministries/Departments may open Sub-Heads and Detailed Heads as required by them in consultation with the Budget Division of the Ministry of Finance.

D.   Principal Accounts Offices of Ministry/Department may open Sub/Detailed Heads required under the Minor Heads falling within the Consolidated Fund of India subject to certain restriction.

16. The Object Heads have been prescribed under Government of India’s Orders below Rule 8 of

A.   R&P 1983

B.   GFR 2017

C.   GAR 1990

D.   Delegation of Financial Power Rules

17. State whether true or false In cases of doubt regarding the Head under which a transaction should be accounted, the matter shall be referred to the Principal Accounts Officer of the Ministry/Department concerned for clarification of the Ministry of Finance and the CA&G, wherever necessary.

A.   True

B.   False

18. RBI shall nominate a bank to function as Accredited Bank of a Ministry or Department, in consultation with the

A.   CGA

B.   C&AG

C.   PAO

D.   Finance Minister

19. Pick the correct ones (i) Public Financial Management System (PFMS) an integrated Financial Management System of CGA shall be used for sanction preparation, bill processing, payment, receipt management, Direct Benefit Transfer, fund flow management and financial reporting. (ii) All the payment, to the extent possible, shall be released ‘just-in-time’ by the Ministries through PFMS. (iii) Detailed Demand for Grants (DDG), as approved, must be uploaded on PFMS by the end of the financial year. (iv) All the re-appropriation orders, surrender order shall be generated through PFMS system. (v) All grantee institutions shall submit Utilisation Certificates on PFMS.

A.   i, ii, iii and iv

B.   i, ii, iv and v

C.   ii, iii, iv and v

D.   All of the above

20. DBT should include

A.   in-kind transfers to beneficiaries

B.   in cash transfers to beneficiaries

C.   transfers/honorariums given to various enablers of government schemes

D.   All of the above.

21. Transaction charges for the financial intermediaries facilitating DBT payments shall be paid as stipulated by

A.   Union Cabinet

B.   Ministry of Finance

C.   Ministry of Trade & Commerce

D.   Ministry of Corporate Affairs

22. Appropriation Accounts of Central Ministries/Departments other than Ministry of Railways, Defence and Posts shall be prepared by the

A.   CCA

B.   CGA

C.   C&AG

D.   Principal Accounts Officer

23. Appropriation Accounts of Central Ministries/Departments shall be prepared under the guidance of

A.   CCA

B.   CGA

C.   C&AG

D.   Principal Accounts Officer

24. Who signs the Appropriation Accounts of Central Ministries/Departments?

A.   CAA

B.   CGA

C.   C&AG

D.   Principal Accounts Officer

25. Union Government Appropriation Accounts (Civil) that required to be submitted to Parliament, shall be prepared by

A.   Principal Accounts Officer

B.   CCA

C.   CA&G

D.   CGA

26. State whether true or false Appropriation Accounts pertaining to Departments of Posts and Defence Services shall be prepared and signed by the Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Posts and Ministry of Defence respectively and that of Ministry of Railways by the Chairman, Railway Board.

A.   True

B.   False

27. Accounts showing under the respective Heads the annual receipts and disbursements and statement of balances for the purpose of the Union, are called

A.   Appropriation Accounts

B.   Finance Accounts

C.   Proforma Accounts

D.   Balance Sheet

28. Finance accounts of the Government of India (including transactions of Department of Posts and Ministries of Defence and Railways and transactions under Public Account of India of Union Territory Governments) shall be prepared and signed by the

A.   CGA

B.   C&AG

C.   Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance

D.   Finance Minister

29. Finance accounts of the Government of India is countersigned by the

A.   CGA

B.   C&AG

C.   Secretary (Expenditure), Ministry of Finance

D.   Finance Minister

30. The certified Annual Accounts and the Reports relating to the accounts shall be submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India to the President in accordance with the provisions of

A.   Section 10 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 150 of Constitution

B.   Section 11 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 151 of Constitution

C.   Section 11 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 150 of Constitution

D.   Section 10 of DPC Act, 1971 & Article 151 of Constitution

31. The Appropriation and Finance Accounts shall be prepared by the respective authorities on the dates mutually agreed upon with the

A.   CGA

B.   C&AG

C.   DRSC

D.   Finance Minister

32. State whether true or false Details of the financial stakes of the Administrative Ministries / PSUs / Subordinate / Statutory / Autonomous Bodies in Public Private Partnerships (PPP)/ Production Sharing Contracts (PSCs)/ Joint Ventures (JV’s)/ Subsidiary companies etc. should be disclosed Finance Accounts.

A.   True

B.   False

33. Pick the incorrect one

A.   Proforma Accounts is suitable for Government Departments working on a commercial or quasi-commercial basis

B.   This includes the maintenance of suitable Manufacturing, Trading, Profit & Loss Accounts and Balance Sheet.

C.   The Head of the units shall be required to maintain such subsidiary proforma accounts in commercial form as may be agreed between Government and CGA.

D.   None of the above (All of the above are correct)

34. Proforma accounts of regular Government Workshops and Factories shall be kept in accordance with the detailed rules and procedure prescribed in the

A.   GAR, 1990

B.   R&P, 1983

C.   GFR, 2017

D.   Departmental regulations.

35. Proforma accounts relating to Public Works shall be prepared by the

A.   Divisional Officer

B.   CCA

C.   Accounts Officers

D.   CGA

36. Proforma accounts relating to Public Works shall be prepared by the Accounts Officers in accordance with the instructions contained in

A.   Departmental regulations

B.   Account Code for Accountants General.

C.   GAR, 1990

D.   Works Manual.

37. Where commercial accounts are maintained for the purpose of assessment of the cost of an article or service, who shall ensure that adequate regulations are framed with the approval of Government in order to ensure that the cost deduced from the accounts is accurate and true?

A.   Head of the Unit

B.   CAG

C.   CGA

D.   CCA

38. Subsidiary accounts and statements shall be submitted on such date as may be required by to the

A.   CCA

B.   CAA

C.   CGA

D.   Accounts Officer

39. Subsidiary accounts and statements shall be appended each year to the

A.   Appropriation Accounts

B.   Finance Accounts

C.   Departmental Accounts

D.   Balance Sheet

40. The Personal Deposit Account shall be authorised to be opened by a special order by the concerned Ministry or Department in consultation with the

A.   CAA

B.   CCA

C.   CGA

D.   C&AG

41. Every personal deposit account so authorised to be opened, shall form part of the Government Account and be located in the

A.   Consolidated Fund

B.   Contingency Fund

C.   Public Account

D.   Local Departmental Account

42. The provisions relating to “Personal Deposit Account” are contained in

A.   Civil Accounts Manual and R&P 1983

B.   GAR, 1990

C.   GFR, 2017

D.   Accounts Code

43. In relation to Civil and Criminal Courts’ deposits, Personal Deposit Account to be opened in favour of the

A.   Chief Justice of High Court of the State Concerned

B.   Chief Justice of Supreme Court

C.   Bar Council

D.   Chief Judicial Authority concerned

44. State whether true or false Officers commanding units and others concerned in the administration of public funds in the Defence Departments can be authorised to open personal deposit accounts for such funds.

A.   True

B.   False

45. Significant expenditure incurred with the object of acquiring tangible assets of a permanent nature or enhancing the utility of existing assets, shall broadly be defined as

A.   Assets expenditure

B.   Capital expenditure.

C.   Revenue expenditure

D.   At discretion of HoD

46. Charges on maintenance, repair, upkeep and working expenses, which are required to maintain the assets in a running order as also all other expenses incurred for the day to day running of the organisation, including establishment and administrative expenses, shall be classified as

A.   Revenue expenditure

B.   Capital expenditure

C.   Major Expenditure

D.   Contingent Expenditure

47. Pick the incorrect one

A.   Expenditure on a temporary asset or on grants-in-aid cannot ordinarily be considered as a capital expenditure

B.   Expenditure on a temporary asset or on grants-in-aid shall not, except in cases specifically authorised by the President on the advice of the C&AG, be debited to a Capital Head.

C.   Capital expenditure is generally met from receipts of capital nature, as distinguished from ordinary revenues derived from taxes, duties, fees, fines and similar items of current income including extraordinary receipts.

D.   Under no circumstances the Government shall meet capital expenditure from ordinary revenues.

48. Charges for re- placement of all wastage or depreciation of property originally provided out of capital grants shall be classified as

A.   Revenue Expenditure

B.   Capital Expenditure

C.   Contingent Expenditure

D.   At discretion of HoD

49. The cost of genuine improvements, which enhance the useful life of the asset whether determined by prescribed rules or formulae, or under special orders of Government, may be debited to

A.   Revenue Expenditure

B.   Capital Expenditure

C.   Contingent Expenditure

D.   At discretion of HoD

50. Expenditure on account of reparation of damage caused by extraordinary calamities such as flood, fire, earthquake, enemy action, etc., shall be charged to Capital, or to Revenue, or divided between them,  depending upon whether such expenditure results in creation/acquisition of new assets or whether it is only for restoring the condition of the existing assets, as may be determined case basis by

A.   HoD

B.   Government

C.   Ministry of Finance

D.   Accounts Office

51. The allocation between capital and revenue expenditure on a Capital Scheme for which separate Capital and Revenue Accounts are to be kept, shall be determined in accordance with such general or special orders as may be prescribed by the Government after consultation with the

A.   CGA

B.   CCA

C.   C&AG

D.   Niti Aayog

52. Capital receipts accruing during the process of construction of a project, shall be classified as

A.   Revenue Receipt

B.   Misc. Receipt

C.   Contribution

D.   reduction of capital expenditure

53. Receipts and recoveries on Capital Account in so far as they represent recoveries of expenditure previously debited to a Capital Major Head shall be taken in

A.   reduction of capital expenditure

B.   Revenue Receipt

C.   Misc. Receipt

D.   Contribution

54. State whether true or false Where loans outstanding against Public Sector Undertakings are proposed to be converted into equity investments in or as grants-in-aid to the Public Sector Undertakings, the approval of the Ministry of Finance to such proposals, shall be obtained by including a token provision in the relevant Demands for Grants or Supplementary Demands for Grants as may be found expedient.

A.   True

B.   False

55. For capital outlay provided otherwise (other than out of specific loan raised by the Govt.), interest shall be charged at the rate of interest to be determined each year by the

A.   Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.

B.   Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance

C.   Ministry of Trade & Commerce

D.   Ministry of Corporate Affairs

56. As a convention, the period accepted by Central and State Governments for the re-audit of past transactions involving errors in classification

A.   2 years

B.   3 years

C.   5 years

D.   10 years

57. The Central Government (which includes Union Territories) and the State Governments have agreed under reciprocal arrangements not to prefer petty and isolated claims for an amount not exceeding

A.   5000/-

B.   7500/-

C.   10000/-

D.   15000/-

58. If a doubt arises as to whether a particular claim would fall within or outside the purview of the proposed arrangement between the Central Government (which includes Union Territories) and the State Governments, it shall be decided by

A.   Central Govt.

B.   State Governments concerned

C.   mutual consultation

D.   Parliament.

59. In the case of Projects, jointly executed by several Governments, where the expenditure is to be shared by the participating Governments in agreed proportions, but the expenditure is ab-initio incurred by one Government and shares of other participating Governments recovered subsequently shall be exhibited as

A.   Revenue receipt

B.   Misc. Revenue receipt

C.   Misc. Deposit Receipt

D.   abatement of charges

60. A five years’ contract shall be offered to the State Government during which the Central Government would pay the fixed sum per annum for the work, If the charges are found to be reasonable and do not exceed for any individual item (or connected group of items)

A.   10000/-

B.   25000/-

C.   50000/-

D.   100000/-

61. An annual statement of proposed charges from the State Government at the time of preparation of the Budget shall be necessary, if the amount agreed upon exceeds

A.   25000/-

B.   50000/-

C.   75000/-

D.   100000/-

62. Claims of State Governments, on account of the extra cost of agency functions entrusted to them under

A.   Article 258

B.   Article 259

C.   Article 261

D.   Article 263

63. The date up-to which Inter-Governmental adjustments can be carried out as the books of RBI for the month of March are closed on this very date

A.   7th April

B.   15th April

C.   20th May

D.   1st June

64. Recoveries of expenditure for services rendered or supplies made to non-Government parties or other Governments (including local funds and Governments outside India), shall in all cases, be classified as

A.   Reduction of Expenditure

B.   Receipts

C.   Contribution

D.   Misc. Deposit Receipt

65. When a Government undertakes a service merely as an agent of a private body, the recovery of entire cost of the service rendered shall be taken

A.   Reduction of Expenditure

B.   Receipts

C.   Contribution

D.   Misc. Deposit Receipt

66. State whether true or false Any relief in respect of payment for services rendered or supplies made to any outside body or fund shall ordinarily be given through a remission of dues rather than by grant-in-aid.

A.   True

B.   False

67. Pick the incorrect one

A.   Half the maintenance charges pertaining to boarder/boundary line will be borne by the Central Government, the other half being recovered, as far as practicable, from the foreign country, failing which the foreign country’s share will also be borne by the Central Government.

B.   Charges relating to demarcation of boundaries and boundary disputes will be borne by the Central Government under Entry 10 of the Union List, subject to such recovery as shall be made from the Foreign Country.

C.   Where streams or other watercourses form the boundaries and where the ordinary principle of median line applies, the Government concerned will bear the cost of maintenance of the boundary line on its side.

D.   The arrangement in (a) above i.e. bearing half the maintenance charges pertaining to boarder/boundary line, in its application to Nepal will be subject to special arrangements worked out in consultation with the Nepal Government.

E.    The share of the Nepal Government for maintenance and demarcation of and disputes over boundaries will be borne by the Central Government for the present

68. For purposes of inter-Departmental payments, the Departments of a Government shall be divided into

A.   Service departments and commercial departments

B.   Work departments and non-work departments

C.   General Departments and Economic departments

D.   General, Social and Economic departments.

69. All claims shall ordinarily be preferred between Departments, both commercial and non-commercial of the Central Government, within the same financial year and not beyond

A.   2 years from the date of transaction.

B.   3 years from the date of transaction.

C.   5 years from the date of transaction.

D.   7 years from the date of transaction.

70. The settlement of inter-departmental adjustments shall be regulated by the directions contained in Chapter 4 of

A.   R&P 1983

B.   GAR,1990.

C.   GFR, 2017

D.   Treasury Rules

71. Between different Departments of the same Government, the recoveries effected for services rendered shall be classified as

A.   Revenue Income

B.   Misc. Income

C.   Deposit Receipt

D.   Deductions from the gross expenditure.

72. Recoveries made by a Commercial Department, e.g., Railways, Posts or a departmental commercial undertaking in respect of services rendered in pursuance of the functions for which the Commercial Department is constituted shall be treated as

A.   receipts of the Department

B.   deductions from the gross expenditure

C.   grant to the department

D.   deposit receipt

73. Where a commercial department acts as an agent for the discharge of functions not germane to the essential purpose of the Department, the recoveries shall be taken as

A.   Revenue Income

B.   Misc. Income

C.   Reduction of expenditure

D.   Deposit Receipt

74. Recoveries of fees for purchase, inspection, etc., effected by the Central Purchase Organizations (DGS&D) of Government of India, are treated as

A.   receipts of the Department

B.   deductions from the gross expenditure

C.   grant to the department

D.   deposit receipt

75. State whether true or false Recoveries effected from another Department of the same Government which are to be classified as deduction from the gross expenditure, shall be shown in the relevant Demand for Grant as “below the line” recovery under the appropriate Major Head of Account etc.

A.   True

B.   False

76. Fill in the blank In the case of Government Departments and undertakings declared as commercial, adjustment of Pensionary liability shall be made in the regular accounts by charging the average of the percentage for ___________ of service based on the rates of monthly contribution of prescribed pension

A.   10th years

B.   12th years

C.   15th years

D.   20th years

 

 


February 26, 2021
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