Evidence Collection and Evaluation in IT Audit: 400 MCQs on

Evidence Collection and Evaluation on Information Technology Audit - 400 MCQs :

1. What is the primary purpose of evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To identify control weaknesses

B) To evaluate the effectiveness of controls

C) To gather data to support audit findings

D) To provide recommendations for improvement

Answer: C) To gather data to support audit findings

1. Which of the following is a type of evidence that can be collected during an IT audit?

A) Testimony

B) Documentary evidence

C) Physical evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the difference between sufficiency and relevance of evidence in an IT audit?

A) Sufficiency refers to the quantity of evidence, while relevance refers to the quality of evidence

B) Sufficiency refers to the quality of evidence, while relevance refers to the quantity of evidence

C) Sufficiency refers to the reliability of evidence, while relevance refers to the usefulness of evidence

D) Sufficiency refers to the usefulness of evidence, while relevance refers to the reliability of evidence

Answer: A) Sufficiency refers to the quantity of evidence, while relevance refers to the quality of evidence

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of reliable evidence in an IT audit?

A) It is obtained from an independent source

B) It is based on hearsay

C) It is outdated

D) It is biased

Answer: A) It is obtained from an independent source

1. What is the purpose of evaluating evidence in an IT audit?

A) To determine the reliability of the evidence

B) To determine the sufficiency of the evidence

C) To draw conclusions based on the evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Questions 6-10

1. Which of the following is a type of evidence evaluation technique used in IT audits?

A) Analytical procedures

B) Test of transactions

C) Test of controls

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of using analytical procedures in evidence evaluation?

A) To test the operating effectiveness of controls

B) To test the design effectiveness of controls

C) To identify unusual transactions or trends

D) To provide assurance on the accuracy of financial statements

Answer: C) To identify unusual transactions or trends

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective evidence evaluation in an IT audit?

A) It is based on a thorough understanding of the business processes

B) It is based on a thorough understanding of the IT systems

C) It is based on a thorough understanding of the audit objectives

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of documenting evidence evaluation results in an IT audit?

A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

C) To provide a clear understanding of the audit objectives

D) To provide a clear understanding of the audit scope

Answer: A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

1. Which of the following is a benefit of effective evidence evaluation in an IT audit?

A) It increases the risk of audit failure

B) It decreases the risk of audit failure

C) It increases the cost of the audit

D) It decreases the cost of the audit

Answer: B) It decreases the risk of audit failure

1. What is the purpose of using a risk-based approach to evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To reduce the risk of audit failure

B) To increase the efficiency of the audit

C) To increase the effectiveness of the audit

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a factor to consider when determining the sufficiency of evidence in an IT audit?

A) The reliability of the evidence

B) The relevance of the evidence

C) The quantity of the evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of using a sampling approach to evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To reduce the cost of the audit

B) To increase the efficiency of the audit

C) To increase the effectiveness of the audit

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of reliable evidence in an IT audit?

A) It is obtained from a dependent source

B) It is based on hearsay

C) It is outdated

D) It is obtained from an independent source

Answer: D) It is obtained from an independent source

1. What is the purpose of evaluating the relevance of evidence in an IT audit?

A) To determine the reliability of the evidence

B) To determine the sufficiency of the evidence

C) To determine the usefulness of the evidence

D) To determine the competence of the evidence

Answer: C) To determine the usefulness of the evidence

1. Which of the following is a type of evidence that can be collected during an IT audit?

A) Documentary evidence

B) Testimony

C) Physical evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of documenting evidence collection procedures in an IT audit?

A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

C) To provide a clear understanding of the audit objectives

D) To provide a clear understanding of the audit scope

Answer: B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) It is based on a thorough understanding of the business processes

B) It is based on a thorough understanding of the IT systems

C) It is based on a thorough understanding of the audit objectives

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of evaluating the sufficiency of evidence in an IT audit?

A) To determine the reliability of the evidence

B) To determine the relevance of the evidence

C) To determine the quantity of the evidence

D) To determine the competence of the evidence

Answer: C) To determine the quantity of the evidence

1. Which of the following is a type of evidence evaluation technique used in IT audits?

A) Analytical procedures

B) Test of transactions

C) Test of controls

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of using analytical procedures in evidence evaluation?

A) To test the operating effectiveness of controls

B) To test the design effectiveness of controls

C) To identify unusual transactions or trends

D) To provide assurance on the accuracy of financial statements

Answer: C) To identify unusual transactions or trends

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective evidence evaluation in an IT audit?

A) It is based on a thorough understanding of the business processes

B) It is based on a thorough understanding of the IT systems

C) It is based on a thorough understanding of the audit objectives

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of documenting evidence evaluation results in an IT audit?

A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

C) To provide a clear understanding of the audit objectives

D) To provide a clear understanding of the audit scope

Answer: A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

1. Which of the following is a benefit of effective evidence evaluation in an IT audit?

A) It increases the risk of audit failure

B) It decreases the risk of audit failure

C) It increases the cost of the audit

D) It decreases the cost of the audit

Answer: B) It decreases the risk of audit failure

1. What is the purpose of using a risk-based approach to evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To reduce the risk of audit failure

B) To increase the efficiency of the audit

C) To increase the effectiveness of the audit

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a factor to consider when determining the sufficiency of evidence in an IT audit?

A) The reliability of the evidence

B) The relevance of the evidence

C) The quantity of the evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of using a sampling approach to evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To reduce the cost of the audit

B) To increase the efficiency of the audit

C) To increase the effectiveness of the audit

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of reliable evidence in an IT audit?

A) It is obtained from a dependent source

B) It is based on hearsay

C) It is outdated

D) It is obtained from an independent source

Answer: D) It is obtained from an independent source

1. What is the purpose of evaluating the credibility of evidence in an IT audit?

A) To determine the reliability of the evidence

B) To determine the sufficiency of the evidence

C) To determine the relevance of the evidence

D) To determine the credibility of the evidence

Answer: D) To determine the credibility of the evidence

1. Which of the following is a type of evidence that can be collected during an IT audit?

A) Documentary evidence

B) Testimony

C) Physical evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of documenting evidence collection procedures in an IT audit?

A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

C) To provide a clear understanding of the audit objectives

D) To provide a clear understanding of the audit scope

Answer: B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) It is based on a thorough understanding of the business processes

B) It is based on a thorough understanding of the IT systems

C) It is based on a thorough understanding of the audit objectives

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of evaluating the sufficiency of evidence in an IT audit?

A) To determine the reliability of the evidence

B) To determine the relevance of the evidence

C) To determine the quantity of the evidence

D) To determine the competence of the evidence

Answer: C) To determine the quantity of the evidence

1. Which of the following is a type of evidence evaluation technique used in IT audits?

A) Analytical procedures

B) Test of transactions

C) Test of controls

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of using analytical procedures in evidence evaluation?

A) To test the operating effectiveness of controls

B) To test the design effectiveness of controls

C) To identify unusual transactions or trends

D) To provide assurance on the accuracy of financial statements

Answer: C) To identify unusual transactions or trends

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective evidence evaluation in an IT audit?

A) It is based on a thorough understanding of the business processes

B) It is based on a thorough understanding of the IT systems

C) It is based on a thorough understanding of the audit objectives

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of documenting evidence evaluation results in an IT audit?

A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

B) To provide a clear understanding of the audit procedures

C) To provide a clear understanding of the audit objectives

D) To provide a clear understanding of the audit scope

Answer: A) To provide a clear understanding of the audit findings

1. Which of the following is a benefit of effective evidence evaluation in an IT audit?

A) It increases the risk of audit failure

B) It decreases the risk of audit failure

C) It increases the cost of the audit

D) It decreases the cost of the audit

Answer: B) It decreases the risk of audit failure

1. What is the purpose of using a risk-based approach to evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To reduce the risk of audit failure

B) To increase the efficiency of the audit

C) To increase the effectiveness of the audit

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a factor to consider when determining the sufficiency of evidence in an IT audit?

A) The reliability of the evidence

B) The relevance of the evidence

C) The quantity of the evidence

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. What is the purpose of using a sampling approach to evidence collection in an IT audit?

A) To reduce the cost of the audit

B) To increase the efficiency of the audit

C) To increase the effectiveness of the audit

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of reliable evidence in an IT audit?

A) It is obtained from a dependent source

B) It is based on hearsay

C) It is outdated

D) It is obtained from an independent source

Answer: D) It is obtained from an independent source

1. What is the purpose of evaluating the competence of evidence in an IT audit?

A) To determine the reliability of the evidence

B) To determine the sufficiency of the evidence

C) To determine the relevance of the evidence

D) To determine

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January 24, 2025

CPD, CPD-III (Paper-2), EMBASSY AUDIT, IT Audit, UN AUDIT

📌 Audit of controls in the Information System- 250 MCQ

📌 Audit of controls in the Information System- 250 MCQ 

(Answers to questions is given at the end )

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Audit of Controls, CPD, CPD-III (Paper-2), EMBASSY AUDIT, IT Audit, UN AUDIT

💉 Information Audit(Risk and controls) 150 MCQ

 

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(options in Bold are the Answers)

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CPD-III (Paper-2), EMBASSY AUDIT, IT Audit, Risk & Controls, UN AUDIT

 

📘Information Systems -  100 MCQs - CPD-III (Paper-2) 

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Q1. COBIT framework is primarily used for:

A. Financial auditing
B. IT governance and management
C. Tax compliance
D. Risk insurance

Answer: B

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Q2. COBIT is developed by:

A. ISO
B. IFAC
C. ISACA
D. RBI

Answer: C

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Q3. COBIT stands for:

A. Control Objectives for Business IT
B. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology
C. Corporate Objectives for IT
D. Control Operations for IT

Answer: B

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Q4. Which principle is NOT part of COBIT?

A. Meeting stakeholder needs
B. Covering enterprise end-to-end
C. Separating governance from management
D. Eliminating risk completely

Answer: D

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Q5. COBIT distinguishes between:

A. IT and Finance
B. Governance and Management
C. Audit and Tax
D. Hardware and Software

Answer: B

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Q6. In COBIT, governance ensures:

A. Execution of tasks
B. Monitoring and evaluation
C. Only financial control
D. Programming standards

Answer: B

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Q7. ISO 27001 relates to:

A. Quality management
B. Information security management
C. Environmental standards
D. Financial reporting

Answer: B

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Q8. ISO 38500 focuses on:

A. IT governance
B. Network security
C. Software coding
D. Data storage

Answer: A

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Q9. ISO standards are issued by:

A. World Bank
B. ISO organization
C. IMF
D. RBI

Answer: B

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Q10. ISO 27001 requires organizations to implement:

A. ERP systems
B. ISMS
C. MIS
D. CRM

Answer: B

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Q11. ISMS stands for:

A. Information System Monitoring Service
B. Information Security Management System
C. Integrated Security Model System
D. Internal System Monitoring Setup

Answer: B

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Q12. IT Act 2000 primarily deals with:

A. Income tax
B. Cyber laws in India
C. Banking regulations
D. Environmental law

Answer: B

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Q13. Digital signatures are recognized under:

A. IPC
B. IT Act 2000
C. Companies Act
D. GST Act

Answer: B

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Q14. The IT Act 2000 was amended in:

A. 2005
B. 2008
C. 2012
D. 2015

Answer: B

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Q15. Section 43 of IT Act deals with:

A. Cyber terrorism
B. Data protection
C. Unauthorized access and damage
D. Digital signature

Answer: C

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Q16. Cyber terrorism is covered under:

A. Section 65
B. Section 66F
C. Section 72
D. Section 80

Answer: B

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Q17. Aadhaar Act governs:

A. Banking
B. Identity authentication
C. Taxation
D. Insurance

Answer: B

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Q18. Aadhaar number is issued by:

A. RBI
B. UIDAI
C. SEBI
D. NIC

Answer: B

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Q19. UIDAI stands for:

A. Unique Identification Authority of India
B. Unified Identity Authority
C. Universal ID Authority
D. Unique Internal Data Authority

Answer: A

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Q20. Aadhaar authentication involves:

A. Only password
B. Biometric or OTP
C. Signature only
D. Email only

Answer: B

---

Q21. Security policy mainly defines:

A. Salary structure
B. Rules for data protection
C. Marketing strategy
D. HR policy

Answer: B

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Q22. Confidentiality ensures:

A. Data is accurate
B. Data is available
C. Data is accessed by authorized users only
D. Data is deleted

Answer: C

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Q23. Integrity ensures:

A. Data is confidential
B. Data is accurate and complete
C. Data is encrypted
D. Data is backed up

Answer: B

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Q24. Availability means:

A. Data is secure
B. Data is always accessible
C. Data is encrypted
D. Data is deleted

Answer: B

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Q25. CIA triad stands for:

A. Control, Integrity, Access
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C. Central IT Authority
D. Cyber Intelligence Agency

Answer: B

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Q26. Digital India initiative aims at:

A. Military development
B. Digital infrastructure and governance
C. Agriculture growth
D. Banking reforms

Answer: B

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Q27. e-Kranti is related to:

A. Agriculture
B. Digital governance
C. Manufacturing
D. Export policy

Answer: B

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Q28. COBIT framework aligns IT with:

A. Individual goals
B. Business objectives
C. Government laws only
D. Software design

Answer: B

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Q29. Risk management in IT governance aims to:

A. Eliminate all risks
B. Identify and manage risks
C. Ignore minor risks
D. Increase costs

Answer: B

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Q30. ISO 27001 certification ensures:

A. Profit increase
B. Security compliance
C. Tax benefits
D. Market share

Answer: B

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Q31. IT governance ensures:

A. Only technical control
B. Alignment of IT with business
C. Coding standards
D. Hardware maintenance

Answer: B

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Q32. Aadhaar data security is governed by:

A. RBI
B. UIDAI regulations
C. SEBI
D. GST Council

Answer: B

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Q33. IT Act Section 72 deals with:

A. Cyber attack
B. Breach of confidentiality
C. Hacking
D. Fraud

Answer: B

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Q34. COBIT domains include:

A. Plan, Build, Run, Monitor
B. Finance, HR, IT
C. Input, Process, Output
D. Audit, Risk, Tax

Answer: A

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Q35. ISO 38500 provides guidance to:

A. Programmers
B. Directors and management
C. Auditors only
D. Customers

Answer: B

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Q36. Information security policy is approved by:

A. IT staff
B. Top management
C. Users
D. Auditors

Answer: B

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Q37. Digital India promotes:

A. Paper-based system
B. Electronic governance
C. Manual processes
D. Offline services

Answer: B

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Q38. COBIT helps in:

A. Writing code
B. IT governance framework
C. Data entry
D. Marketing

Answer: B

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Q39. ISO 27001 risk assessment is:

A. Optional
B. Mandatory
C. Not required
D. External only

Answer: B

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Q40. Aadhaar Act ensures:

A. Tax compliance
B. Identity verification
C. Export promotion
D. Banking regulation

Answer: B

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Q41. Governance focuses on:

A. Execution
B. Direction and control
C. Coding
D. Networking

Answer: B

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Q42. Management focuses on:

A. Strategy
B. Execution
C. Policy making
D. Audit

Answer: B

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Q43. IT Act provides legal recognition to:

A. Paper documents
B. Electronic records
C. Only contracts
D. Banking

Answer: B

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Q44. ISO 27001 controls are:

A. Financial
B. Security-related
C. HR-related
D. Marketing

Answer: B

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Q45. Digital governance improves:

A. Corruption
B. Transparency
C. Delay
D. Paperwork

Answer: B

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Q46. COBIT supports:

A. IT alignment with strategy
B. Only hardware
C. Only software
D. Only audit

Answer: A

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Q47. Aadhaar authentication failure leads to:

A. Access denial
B. Data deletion
C. Account closure
D. Penalty

Answer: A

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Q48. ISO 27001 Annex A contains:

A. Financial rules
B. Security controls
C. Tax rules
D. Audit standards

Answer: B

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Q49. IT governance ensures value delivery by:

A. Increasing cost
B. Optimizing resources
C. Ignoring risk
D. Eliminating IT

Answer: B

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Q50. Security policies should be:

A. Informal
B. Documented and enforced
C. Optional
D. Ignored

Q51. In COBIT, the process “Evaluate, Direct and Monitor (EDM)” belongs to:

A. Management
B. Governance
C. Audit
D. Risk

Answer: B

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Q52. In COBIT, “Align, Plan and Organize (APO)” falls under:

A. Governance
B. Management
C. Compliance
D. Audit

Answer: B

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Q53. COBIT performance management uses:

A. KPIs only
B. Goals cascade
C. Financial ratios
D. Audit reports

Answer: B

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Q54. COBIT goals cascade links:

A. IT goals to coding
B. Business goals to IT goals
C. Finance to HR
D. Audit to tax

Answer: B

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Q55. ISO 27001 requires risk treatment to:

A. Eliminate all risks
B. Reduce risk to acceptable level
C. Ignore risks
D. Transfer all risks

Answer: B

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Q56. Statement of Applicability (SoA) in ISO 27001 defines:

A. Business plan
B. Applicable controls
C. HR policy
D. Audit scope

Answer: B

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Q57. Residual risk is:

A. Initial risk
B. Remaining risk after controls
C. Financial risk
D. External risk

Answer: B

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Q58. IT Act Section 65 deals with:

A. Hacking
B. Tampering with computer source documents
C. Identity theft
D. Cyber terrorism

Answer: B

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Q59. Section 66 of IT Act deals with:

A. Civil liability
B. Computer-related offences
C. Contracts
D. Digital signature

Answer: B

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Q60. Identity theft is covered under:

A. Section 66A
B. Section 66C
C. Section 72
D. Section 43

Answer: B

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Q61. Section 66E deals with:

A. Hacking
B. Privacy violation
C. Fraud
D. Data theft

Answer: B

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Q62. Aadhaar Act restricts sharing of:

A. Bank details
B. Core biometric information
C. Mobile number
D. Address

Answer: B

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Q63. Virtual ID in Aadhaar is used for:

A. Banking
B. Masking Aadhaar number
C. Tax filing
D. Authentication bypass

Answer: B

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Q64. Aadhaar authentication types include:

A. Demographic only
B. Biometric and OTP
C. Password only
D. Email only

Answer: B

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Q65. Security policy should be reviewed:

A. Once
B. Periodically
C. Never
D. Only during audit

Answer: B

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Q66. Information classification helps in:

A. Cost reduction
B. Data protection level assignment
C. Coding
D. Hardware upgrade

Answer: B

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Q67. Principle of least privilege means:

A. Maximum access
B. Minimum required access
C. Full access
D. No access

Answer: B

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Q68. ISO 27001 control domains include:

A. Access control
B. Marketing
C. Sales
D. Logistics

Answer: A

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Q69. Digital India pillar includes:

A. Digital infrastructure
B. Farming
C. Defense
D. Tourism

Answer: A

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Q70. e-Governance improves:

A. Manual work
B. Transparency and efficiency
C. Delay
D. Corruption

Answer: B

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Q71. COBIT enablers include:

A. Processes
B. Principles
C. Policies
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q72. Risk appetite is:

A. Risk eliminated
B. Level of risk acceptable
C. Risk ignored
D. Risk transferred

Answer: B

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Q73. ISO 38500 principle includes:

A. Responsibility
B. Strategy
C. Performance
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q74. Governance ensures:

A. Doing things right
B. Doing right things
C. Coding
D. Execution

Answer: B

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Q75. Management ensures:

A. Direction
B. Execution of plans
C. Policy
D. Governance

Answer: B

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Q76. IT Act recognizes:

A. Oral contracts
B. Electronic contracts
C. Only written contracts
D. Banking contracts

Answer: B

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Q77. Certifying Authorities are regulated by:

A. RBI
B. Controller of Certifying Authorities
C. SEBI
D. UIDAI

Answer: B

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Q78. Digital signature ensures:

A. Confidentiality
B. Authentication and integrity
C. Availability
D. Backup

Answer: B

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Q79. Public Key Infrastructure supports:

A. Encryption
B. Authentication
C. Digital signatures
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q80. ISO 27001 audit is conducted to:

A. Increase profit
B. Check compliance
C. Reduce tax
D. Improve HR

Answer: B

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Q81. COBIT maturity model measures:

A. Profit
B. Process capability
C. Revenue
D. Assets

Answer: B

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Q82. IT governance objective is:

A. Cost increase
B. Value delivery
C. Risk increase
D. Delay

Answer: B

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Q83. Aadhaar Act penalty applies for:

A. Misuse of identity data
B. Banking fraud
C. Tax evasion
D. Audit failure

Answer: A

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Q84. Data privacy is part of:

A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Audit

Answer: B

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Q85. COBIT separates governance and management to:

A. Reduce confusion
B. Improve clarity
C. Define roles
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q86. ISO 27001 requires documentation of:

A. Processes
B. Policies
C. Controls
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q87. Digital India promotes:

A. Paper records
B. Online services
C. Manual processing
D. Offline system

Answer: B

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Q88. IT Act Section 79 deals with:

A. Cyber crime
B. Intermediary liability
C. Fraud
D. Tax

Answer: B

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Q89. Intermediaries include:

A. Banks
B. ISPs and platforms
C. Auditors
D. Tax officers

Answer: B

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Q90. COBIT framework ensures:

A. IT-business alignment
B. Coding efficiency
C. Data entry
D. Accounting

Answer: A

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Q91. Risk mitigation includes:

A. Ignoring risk
B. Applying controls
C. Increasing risk
D. Removing systems

Answer: B

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Q92. Security awareness programs aim to:

A. Train users
B. Reduce risk
C. Improve compliance
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q93. ISO 27001 certification validity is typically:

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

Answer: C

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Q94. Aadhaar Act ensures privacy through:

A. Data sharing
B. Data protection rules
C. Open access
D. No control

Answer: B

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Q95. Digital India supports:

A. e-Health
B. e-Education
C. e-Governance
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q96. COBIT provides:

A. Governance framework
B. Coding standards
C. Hardware design
D. Financial policy

Answer: A

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Q97. ISO 27001 focuses on:

A. Physical security only
B. Information security
C. Financial security
D. Banking

Answer: B

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Q98. IT Act penalties include:

A. Fine
B. Imprisonment
C. Both
D. None

Answer: C

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Q99. Governance framework ensures:

A. Accountability
B. Transparency
C. Control
D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Q100. Information system governance ultimate goal is:

A. Profit maximization
B. Value creation and risk management
C. Cost cutting
D. Data storage

Answer: B

📘Information Technology-  50 MCQs  (CPD-III, Paper-2)

Q1. What is the process at the most detailed level of Data Flow Diagrams known as?

A. Interfaces
B. Functional primitives
C. Data flow
D. Transform descriptions
Answer: B

---

Q2. Total bits used by an IPv6 address is:

A. 64 bits
B. 256 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 32 bits
Answer: C

---

Q3. Identify the language mainly used for Artificial Intelligence:

A. Java
B. J2EE
C. Prolog
D. C
Answer: C

---

Q4. Why is a firewall used in a computer?

A. Monitoring
B. Data transmission
C. Authentication
D. Security
Answer: D

---

Q5. The full form of DOM is:

A. Document-Oriented Memory
B. Document Object Model
C. Document Object Memory
D. None of the above
Answer: B

---

Q6. How many levels are there in database architecture?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

---

Q7. Which of the following is NOT a database management software?

A. MySQL
B. COBOL
C. Sybase
D. Oracle
Answer: B

---

Q8. Total standard color names supported by HTML are:

A. 30
B. 70
C. 140
D. 120
Answer: C

---

Q9. Port number of FTP is:

A. 23
B. 21
C. 110
D. 143
Answer: B

---

Q10. Total number of layers in the OSI model is:

A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Answer: B

---

Q11. UNIX is written in:

A. C#
B. C++
C. C
D. .NET
Answer: C

---

Q12. Features of Big Data Analytics include:

A. Open source
B. Data recovery
C. Scalability
D. All of the above
Answer: D

---

Q13. Which of the following is an image file extension?

A. .mkv
B. .gif
C. .txt
D. .vdf
Answer: B

---

Q14. dBase III is:

A. Hardware
B. Firmware
C. Application software
D. Operating system
Answer: C

---

Q15. Main memory of a computer system is:

A. Non-volatile
B. Volatile
C. Restricted
D. Unrestricted
Answer: B

---

Q16. Which server allows LAN users to share data?

A. Communication server
B. Point server
C. Data server
D. File server
Answer: D

---

Q17. URL stands for:

A. Uninterrupted Data Locator
B. Uninterrupted Record Locator
C. Uniform Record Locator
D. Uniform Resource Locator
Answer: D

---

Q18. SSL stands for:

A. Secure Socket Layer
B. Secure Secret Level
C. Secure System Level
D. Section Security Layer
Answer: A

---

Q19. Which of the following is NOT a SQL command?

A. DELETE
B. ORDER BY
C. SELECT
D. WHERE
Answer: A (as per given key)

---

Q20. Range of byte data type is:

A. -10 to 9
B. -128 to 127
C. -32768 to 32767
D. -2147483648 to 2147483647
Answer: B

---

Q21. Computer word size is a multiple of:

A. 4 bits
B. 10 bits
C. 16 bits
D. 1024 bits
Answer: C

---

Q22. OCR stands for:

A. Online Computer Retrieval
B. Office Cash Receiver
C. Optical Character Reader
D. Optical Card Reader
Answer: D (as per given key)

---

Q23. Testing of a program’s components is known as:

A. System testing
B. Isolation testing
C. Pilot testing
D. Unit testing
Answer: D

---

Q24. Information in ROM is stored by:

A. Engineer
B. Programmer
C. Manufacturer
D. User
Answer: C

---

Q25. Device driver is required in:

A. Register
B. Main memory
C. Disk
D. Cache
Answer: C

---

Q26. Which system call never returns an error?

A. fork
B. getpid
C. ioctl
D. open
Answer: B

---

Q27. Total view of a database is known as:

A. Physical view
B. Internal view
C. Conceptual view
D. External view
Answer: C

---

Q28. Computer hardware consists of:

A. Storage devices
B. CPU
C. I/O devices
D. All of the above
Answer: D

---

Q29. Computer memory is measured in:

A. Units
B. Bits
C. Cells
D. Bytes
Answer: D

---

Q30. Which memory is volatile?

A. EEPROM
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. CMOS
Answer: B

---

Q31. Users cannot write information in:

A. EEPROM
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. CMOS
Answer: C

---

Q32. UNIX command to send signal is:

A. send
B. kill
C. sigsend
D. none
Answer: B

---

Q33. Interconnection of computers is possible through:

A. Communication links
B. Cables
C. Information technology
D. Processing
Answer: C (as per given key)

---

Q34. Firmware is stored in:

A. Cache memory
B. Non-volatile memory
C. Volatile memory
D. RAM
Answer: B

---

Q35. LPT stands for:

A. Low Print Typewriter
B. Line Per Text
C. Line Printer
D. Laser Printer
Answer: C

---

Q36. Modern computers are based on:

A. Microchip
B. Microprocessor
C. I/O devices
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

---

Q37. Command interpreter is also called:

A. Prompt
B. Kernel
C. Command
D. Shell
Answer: D

---

Q38. Drum plotter is used in:

A. Mini computer
B. Mainframe computer
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C

---

Q39. An uninterruptible unit is called:

A. Single
B. Static
C. Atomic
D. None
Answer: C

---

Q40. Data can be updated in:

A. Informational environment
B. Data warehouse
C. Operational environment
D. Data mining
Answer: C

---

Q41. Which is NOT a networking device?

A. Switch
B. Traffic analyzer
C. Bridge
D. Router
Answer: B

---

Q42. MAC address length is:

A. 16 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 8 bits
Answer: B

---

Q43. Which is NOT an operating system?

A. Linux
B. DOS
C. Oracle
D. Windows
Answer: C

---

Q44. API enables:

A. Device portability
B. Network portability
C. Service portability
D. System portability
Answer: D

---

Q45. A table joined with itself is called:

A. Join
B. Self-join
C. Outer join
D. Equi join
Answer: B

---

Q46. Single-user OS is:

A. Windows
B. MS-DOS
C. MAC
D. None
Answer: B

---

Q47. Most common internet protocol:

A. PPP
B. FTP
C. TCP/IP
D. SMTP
Answer: D (as per given key)

---

Q48. SBC stands for:

A. Standard Business Center
B. Smart Business Center
C. Standard Building Center
D. Smart Building Center
Answer: B

---

Q49. Reading operation is also called:

A. Store operation
B. Access operation
C. Fetch operation
D. Control operation
Answer: C

---

Q50. Number of users using a microprocessor at a time:

A. Single user
B. Multi-user
C. Particular user
D. Professional user
Answer: A

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October 14, 2022

CPD, CPD-III (Paper-2), IT Audit