📘Information Systems - 100 MCQs - CPD-III (Paper-2)
Q1. COBIT framework is primarily used for:
A. Financial auditing
B. IT governance and management
C. Tax compliance
D. Risk insurance
Answer: B
Q2. COBIT is developed by:
A. ISO
B. IFAC
C. ISACA
D. RBI
Answer: C
Q3. COBIT stands for:
A. Control Objectives for Business IT
B. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology
C. Corporate Objectives for IT
D. Control Operations for IT
Answer: B
Q4. Which principle is NOT part of COBIT?
A. Meeting stakeholder needs
B. Covering enterprise end-to-end
C. Separating governance from management
D. Eliminating risk completely
Answer: D
Q5. COBIT distinguishes between:
A. IT and Finance
B. Governance and Management
C. Audit and Tax
D. Hardware and Software
Answer: B
Q6. In COBIT, governance ensures:
A. Execution of tasks
B. Monitoring and evaluation
C. Only financial control
D. Programming standards
Answer: B
Q7. ISO 27001 relates to:
A. Quality management
B. Information security management
C. Environmental standards
D. Financial reporting
Answer: B
Q8. ISO 38500 focuses on:
A. IT governance
B. Network security
C. Software coding
D. Data storage
Answer: A
Q9. ISO standards are issued by:
A. World Bank
B. ISO organization
C. IMF
D. RBI
Answer: B
Q10. ISO 27001 requires organizations to implement:
A. ERP systems
B. ISMS
C. MIS
D. CRM
Answer: B
Q11. ISMS stands for:
A. Information System Monitoring Service
B. Information Security Management System
C. Integrated Security Model System
D. Internal System Monitoring Setup
Answer: B
Q12. IT Act 2000 primarily deals with:
A. Income tax
B. Cyber laws in India
C. Banking regulations
D. Environmental law
Answer: B
Q13. Digital signatures are recognized under:
A. IPC
B. IT Act 2000
C. Companies Act
D. GST Act
Answer: B
Q14. The IT Act 2000 was amended in:
A. 2005
B. 2008
C. 2012
D. 2015
Answer: B
Q15. Section 43 of IT Act deals with:
A. Cyber terrorism
B. Data protection
C. Unauthorized access and damage
D. Digital signature
Answer: C
Q16. Cyber terrorism is covered under:
A. Section 65
B. Section 66F
C. Section 72
D. Section 80
Answer: B
Q17. Aadhaar Act governs:
A. Banking
B. Identity authentication
C. Taxation
D. Insurance
Answer: B
Q18. Aadhaar number is issued by:
A. RBI
B. UIDAI
C. SEBI
D. NIC
Answer: B
Q19. UIDAI stands for:
A. Unique Identification Authority of India
B. Unified Identity Authority
C. Universal ID Authority
D. Unique Internal Data Authority
Answer: A
Q20. Aadhaar authentication involves:
A. Only password
B. Biometric or OTP
C. Signature only
D. Email only
Answer: B
Q21. Security policy mainly defines:
A. Salary structure
B. Rules for data protection
C. Marketing strategy
D. HR policy
Answer: B
Q22. Confidentiality ensures:
A. Data is accurate
B. Data is available
C. Data is accessed by authorized users only
D. Data is deleted
Answer: C
Q23. Integrity ensures:
A. Data is confidential
B. Data is accurate and complete
C. Data is encrypted
D. Data is backed up
Answer: B
Q24. Availability means:
A. Data is secure
B. Data is always accessible
C. Data is encrypted
D. Data is deleted
Answer: B
Q25. CIA triad stands for:
A. Control, Integrity, Access
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
C. Central IT Authority
D. Cyber Intelligence Agency
Answer: B
Q26. Digital India initiative aims at:
A. Military development
B. Digital infrastructure and governance
C. Agriculture growth
D. Banking reforms
Answer: B
Q27. e-Kranti is related to:
A. Agriculture
B. Digital governance
C. Manufacturing
D. Export policy
Answer: B
Q28. COBIT framework aligns IT with:
A. Individual goals
B. Business objectives
C. Government laws only
D. Software design
Answer: B
Q29. Risk management in IT governance aims to:
A. Eliminate all risks
B. Identify and manage risks
C. Ignore minor risks
D. Increase costs
Answer: B
Q30. ISO 27001 certification ensures:
A. Profit increase
B. Security compliance
C. Tax benefits
D. Market share
Answer: B
Q31. IT governance ensures:
A. Only technical control
B. Alignment of IT with business
C. Coding standards
D. Hardware maintenance
Answer: B
Q32. Aadhaar data security is governed by:
A. RBI
B. UIDAI regulations
C. SEBI
D. GST Council
Answer: B
Q33. IT Act Section 72 deals with:
A. Cyber attack
B. Breach of confidentiality
C. Hacking
D. Fraud
Answer: B
Q34. COBIT domains include:
A. Plan, Build, Run, Monitor
B. Finance, HR, IT
C. Input, Process, Output
D. Audit, Risk, Tax
Answer: A
Q35. ISO 38500 provides guidance to:
A. Programmers
B. Directors and management
C. Auditors only
D. Customers
Answer: B
Q36. Information security policy is approved by:
A. IT staff
B. Top management
C. Users
D. Auditors
Answer: B
Q37. Digital India promotes:
A. Paper-based system
B. Electronic governance
C. Manual processes
D. Offline services
Answer: B
Q38. COBIT helps in:
A. Writing code
B. IT governance framework
C. Data entry
D. Marketing
Answer: B
Q39. ISO 27001 risk assessment is:
A. Optional
B. Mandatory
C. Not required
D. External only
Answer: B
Q40. Aadhaar Act ensures:
A. Tax compliance
B. Identity verification
C. Export promotion
D. Banking regulation
Answer: B
Q41. Governance focuses on:
A. Execution
B. Direction and control
C. Coding
D. Networking
Answer: B
Q42. Management focuses on:
A. Strategy
B. Execution
C. Policy making
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q43. IT Act provides legal recognition to:
A. Paper documents
B. Electronic records
C. Only contracts
D. Banking
Answer: B
Q44. ISO 27001 controls are:
A. Financial
B. Security-related
C. HR-related
D. Marketing
Answer: B
Q45. Digital governance improves:
A. Corruption
B. Transparency
C. Delay
D. Paperwork
Answer: B
Q46. COBIT supports:
A. IT alignment with strategy
B. Only hardware
C. Only software
D. Only audit
Answer: A
Q47. Aadhaar authentication failure leads to:
A. Access denial
B. Data deletion
C. Account closure
D. Penalty
Answer: A
Q48. ISO 27001 Annex A contains:
A. Financial rules
B. Security controls
C. Tax rules
D. Audit standards
Answer: B
Q49. IT governance ensures value delivery by:
A. Increasing cost
B. Optimizing resources
C. Ignoring risk
D. Eliminating IT
Answer: B
Q50. Security policies should be:
A. Informal
B. Documented and enforced
C. Optional
D. Ignored
Q51. In COBIT, the process “Evaluate, Direct and Monitor (EDM)” belongs to:
A. Management
B. Governance
C. Audit
D. Risk
Answer: B
Q52. In COBIT, “Align, Plan and Organize (APO)” falls under:
A. Governance
B. Management
C. Compliance
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q53. COBIT performance management uses:
A. KPIs only
B. Goals cascade
C. Financial ratios
D. Audit reports
Answer: B
Q54. COBIT goals cascade links:
A. IT goals to coding
B. Business goals to IT goals
C. Finance to HR
D. Audit to tax
Answer: B
Q55. ISO 27001 requires risk treatment to:
A. Eliminate all risks
B. Reduce risk to acceptable level
C. Ignore risks
D. Transfer all risks
Answer: B
Q56. Statement of Applicability (SoA) in ISO 27001 defines:
A. Business plan
B. Applicable controls
C. HR policy
D. Audit scope
Answer: B
Q57. Residual risk is:
A. Initial risk
B. Remaining risk after controls
C. Financial risk
D. External risk
Answer: B
Q58. IT Act Section 65 deals with:
A. Hacking
B. Tampering with computer source documents
C. Identity theft
D. Cyber terrorism
Answer: B
Q59. Section 66 of IT Act deals with:
A. Civil liability
B. Computer-related offences
C. Contracts
D. Digital signature
Answer: B
Q60. Identity theft is covered under:
A. Section 66A
B. Section 66C
C. Section 72
D. Section 43
Answer: B
Q61. Section 66E deals with:
A. Hacking
B. Privacy violation
C. Fraud
D. Data theft
Answer: B
Q62. Aadhaar Act restricts sharing of:
A. Bank details
B. Core biometric information
C. Mobile number
D. Address
Answer: B
Q63. Virtual ID in Aadhaar is used for:
A. Banking
B. Masking Aadhaar number
C. Tax filing
D. Authentication bypass
Answer: B
Q64. Aadhaar authentication types include:
A. Demographic only
B. Biometric and OTP
C. Password only
D. Email only
Answer: B
Q65. Security policy should be reviewed:
A. Once
B. Periodically
C. Never
D. Only during audit
Answer: B
Q66. Information classification helps in:
A. Cost reduction
B. Data protection level assignment
C. Coding
D. Hardware upgrade
Answer: B
Q67. Principle of least privilege means:
A. Maximum access
B. Minimum required access
C. Full access
D. No access
Answer: B
Q68. ISO 27001 control domains include:
A. Access control
B. Marketing
C. Sales
D. Logistics
Answer: A
Q69. Digital India pillar includes:
A. Digital infrastructure
B. Farming
C. Defense
D. Tourism
Answer: A
Q70. e-Governance improves:
A. Manual work
B. Transparency and efficiency
C. Delay
D. Corruption
Answer: B
Q71. COBIT enablers include:
A. Processes
B. Principles
C. Policies
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q72. Risk appetite is:
A. Risk eliminated
B. Level of risk acceptable
C. Risk ignored
D. Risk transferred
Answer: B
Q73. ISO 38500 principle includes:
A. Responsibility
B. Strategy
C. Performance
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q74. Governance ensures:
A. Doing things right
B. Doing right things
C. Coding
D. Execution
Answer: B
Q75. Management ensures:
A. Direction
B. Execution of plans
C. Policy
D. Governance
Answer: B
Q76. IT Act recognizes:
A. Oral contracts
B. Electronic contracts
C. Only written contracts
D. Banking contracts
Answer: B
Q77. Certifying Authorities are regulated by:
A. RBI
B. Controller of Certifying Authorities
C. SEBI
D. UIDAI
Answer: B
Q78. Digital signature ensures:
A. Confidentiality
B. Authentication and integrity
C. Availability
D. Backup
Answer: B
Q79. Public Key Infrastructure supports:
A. Encryption
B. Authentication
C. Digital signatures
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q80. ISO 27001 audit is conducted to:
A. Increase profit
B. Check compliance
C. Reduce tax
D. Improve HR
Answer: B
Q81. COBIT maturity model measures:
A. Profit
B. Process capability
C. Revenue
D. Assets
Answer: B
Q82. IT governance objective is:
A. Cost increase
B. Value delivery
C. Risk increase
D. Delay
Answer: B
Q83. Aadhaar Act penalty applies for:
A. Misuse of identity data
B. Banking fraud
C. Tax evasion
D. Audit failure
Answer: A
Q84. Data privacy is part of:
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q85. COBIT separates governance and management to:
A. Reduce confusion
B. Improve clarity
C. Define roles
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q86. ISO 27001 requires documentation of:
A. Processes
B. Policies
C. Controls
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q87. Digital India promotes:
A. Paper records
B. Online services
C. Manual processing
D. Offline system
Answer: B
Q88. IT Act Section 79 deals with:
A. Cyber crime
B. Intermediary liability
C. Fraud
D. Tax
Answer: B
Q89. Intermediaries include:
A. Banks
B. ISPs and platforms
C. Auditors
D. Tax officers
Answer: B
Q90. COBIT framework ensures:
A. IT-business alignment
B. Coding efficiency
C. Data entry
D. Accounting
Answer: A
Q91. Risk mitigation includes:
A. Ignoring risk
B. Applying controls
C. Increasing risk
D. Removing systems
Answer: B
Q92. Security awareness programs aim to:
A. Train users
B. Reduce risk
C. Improve compliance
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q93. ISO 27001 certification validity is typically:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
Answer: C
Q94. Aadhaar Act ensures privacy through:
A. Data sharing
B. Data protection rules
C. Open access
D. No control
Answer: B
Q95. Digital India supports:
A. e-Health
B. e-Education
C. e-Governance
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q96. COBIT provides:
A. Governance framework
B. Coding standards
C. Hardware design
D. Financial policy
Answer: A
Q97. ISO 27001 focuses on:
A. Physical security only
B. Information security
C. Financial security
D. Banking
Answer: B
Q98. IT Act penalties include:
A. Fine
B. Imprisonment
C. Both
D. None
Answer: C
Q99. Governance framework ensures:
A. Accountability
B. Transparency
C. Control
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q100. Information system governance ultimate goal is:
A. Profit maximization
B. Value creation and risk management
C. Cost cutting
D. Data storage
Answer: B
📘Information Technology- 50 MCQs (CPD-III, Paper-2)
Q1. What is the process at the most detailed level of Data Flow Diagrams known as?
A. Interfaces
B. Functional primitives
C. Data flow
D. Transform descriptions
Answer: B
Q2. Total bits used by an IPv6 address is:
A. 64 bits
B. 256 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 32 bits
Answer: C
Q3. Identify the language mainly used for Artificial Intelligence:
A. Java
B. J2EE
C. Prolog
D. C
Answer: C
Q4. Why is a firewall used in a computer?
A. Monitoring
B. Data transmission
C. Authentication
D. Security
Answer: D
Q5. The full form of DOM is:
A. Document-Oriented Memory
B. Document Object Model
C. Document Object Memory
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Q6. How many levels are there in database architecture?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a database management software?
A. MySQL
B. COBOL
C. Sybase
D. Oracle
Answer: B
Q8. Total standard color names supported by HTML are:
A. 30
B. 70
C. 140
D. 120
Answer: C
Q9. Port number of FTP is:
A. 23
B. 21
C. 110
D. 143
Answer: B
Q10. Total number of layers in the OSI model is:
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Answer: B
Q11. UNIX is written in:
A. C#
B. C++
C. C
D. .NET
Answer: C
Q12. Features of Big Data Analytics include:
A. Open source
B. Data recovery
C. Scalability
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q13. Which of the following is an image file extension?
A. .mkv
B. .gif
C. .txt
D. .vdf
Answer: B
Q14. dBase III is:
A. Hardware
B. Firmware
C. Application software
D. Operating system
Answer: C
Q15. Main memory of a computer system is:
A. Non-volatile
B. Volatile
C. Restricted
D. Unrestricted
Answer: B
Q16. Which server allows LAN users to share data?
A. Communication server
B. Point server
C. Data server
D. File server
Answer: D
Q17. URL stands for:
A. Uninterrupted Data Locator
B. Uninterrupted Record Locator
C. Uniform Record Locator
D. Uniform Resource Locator
Answer: D
Q18. SSL stands for:
A. Secure Socket Layer
B. Secure Secret Level
C. Secure System Level
D. Section Security Layer
Answer: A
Q19. Which of the following is NOT a SQL command?
A. DELETE
B. ORDER BY
C. SELECT
D. WHERE
Answer: A (as per given key)
Q20. Range of byte data type is:
A. -10 to 9
B. -128 to 127
C. -32768 to 32767
D. -2147483648 to 2147483647
Answer: B
Q21. Computer word size is a multiple of:
A. 4 bits
B. 10 bits
C. 16 bits
D. 1024 bits
Answer: C
Q22. OCR stands for:
A. Online Computer Retrieval
B. Office Cash Receiver
C. Optical Character Reader
D. Optical Card Reader
Answer: D (as per given key)
Q23. Testing of a program’s components is known as:
A. System testing
B. Isolation testing
C. Pilot testing
D. Unit testing
Answer: D
Q24. Information in ROM is stored by:
A. Engineer
B. Programmer
C. Manufacturer
D. User
Answer: C
Q25. Device driver is required in:
A. Register
B. Main memory
C. Disk
D. Cache
Answer: C
Q26. Which system call never returns an error?
A. fork
B. getpid
C. ioctl
D. open
Answer: B
Q27. Total view of a database is known as:
A. Physical view
B. Internal view
C. Conceptual view
D. External view
Answer: C
Q28. Computer hardware consists of:
A. Storage devices
B. CPU
C. I/O devices
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q29. Computer memory is measured in:
A. Units
B. Bits
C. Cells
D. Bytes
Answer: D
Q30. Which memory is volatile?
A. EEPROM
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. CMOS
Answer: B
Q31. Users cannot write information in:
A. EEPROM
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. CMOS
Answer: C
Q32. UNIX command to send signal is:
A. send
B. kill
C. sigsend
D. none
Answer: B
Q33. Interconnection of computers is possible through:
A. Communication links
B. Cables
C. Information technology
D. Processing
Answer: C (as per given key)
Q34. Firmware is stored in:
A. Cache memory
B. Non-volatile memory
C. Volatile memory
D. RAM
Answer: B
Q35. LPT stands for:
A. Low Print Typewriter
B. Line Per Text
C. Line Printer
D. Laser Printer
Answer: C
Q36. Modern computers are based on:
A. Microchip
B. Microprocessor
C. I/O devices
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
Q37. Command interpreter is also called:
A. Prompt
B. Kernel
C. Command
D. Shell
Answer: D
Q38. Drum plotter is used in:
A. Mini computer
B. Mainframe computer
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C
Q39. An uninterruptible unit is called:
A. Single
B. Static
C. Atomic
D. None
Answer: C
Q40. Data can be updated in:
A. Informational environment
B. Data warehouse
C. Operational environment
D. Data mining
Answer: C
Q41. Which is NOT a networking device?
A. Switch
B. Traffic analyzer
C. Bridge
D. Router
Answer: B
Q42. MAC address length is:
A. 16 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 32 bits
D. 8 bits
Answer: B
Q43. Which is NOT an operating system?
A. Linux
B. DOS
C. Oracle
D. Windows
Answer: C
Q44. API enables:
A. Device portability
B. Network portability
C. Service portability
D. System portability
Answer: D
Q45. A table joined with itself is called:
A. Join
B. Self-join
C. Outer join
D. Equi join
Answer: B
Q46. Single-user OS is:
A. Windows
B. MS-DOS
C. MAC
D. None
Answer: B
Q47. Most common internet protocol:
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. TCP/IP
D. SMTP
Answer: D (as per given key)
Q48. SBC stands for:
A. Standard Business Center
B. Smart Business Center
C. Standard Building Center
D. Smart Building Center
Answer: B
Q49. Reading operation is also called:
A. Store operation
B. Access operation
C. Fetch operation
D. Control operation
Answer: C
Q50. Number of users using a microprocessor at a time:
A. Single user
B. Multi-user
C. Particular user
D. Professional user
Answer: A
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