ads

MCQ- Public Expenditure

Public Expenditure-MCQ

 

 

 

Q Choose appropriate answers

 

1. Transfer payments include-

 

a) Old age pension                                               b) Subsidies

 

c) Interest on public debt                                   d) all of the above

 

2. Interest payments are a part of –

 

a) Development Expenditure                              b) Non-Development Expenditure

 

c) Capital Expenditure                                          d) All of the above

 

3. Bharat Nirman, MGNREGA are examples of -

 

a)     Plan Expenditure b) Non-Plan Expenditure

 

      c) Capital Expenditure d) None of the above

 

4.        Which of the following is not true of public budget?

 

a)     A budget contains only proposals of taxation.

 

b)     It refers to the policies of the government.

 

c)     It contains the estimated receipts and proposed expenditure.

 

d)     It reflects the programmes of the government.

 

5.        The number of sections of a good budget are –

 

a) Two                                                                b) Three

 

c) Five                                                               d) Eight

 

6.        The budget presented when elections are due is known as –

 

 

a) Tentative Budget              b) Proposed Budget

 

c) Zero Budgets                    d) Lame Duck Budget

 

7.        Pick out the feature which is not applicable to a good budget,

 

a)     Comprehensiveness             b) Clarity

 

      c) Objectivity                               d) Lengthy

 

8.        The finance commission's role is to -

 

a)     Propose New Taxes

 

b)     To Abolish Old taxes

 

c)     To review and modify arrangements

 

d)     None of the above

 

9.        Pick out the item which is not a part of the plan expenditure,

 

a) Agriculture                 b) Industry

c) Social Services          d) Defense

 

10.     Pick out the item which is not a part of capital budget.

 

a) Market Borrowings                 b) Sale of Treasury Bulls

c) Revenue from Industry           d) Net Small Savings

 

11.     Pick out the factor which is not a part of revenue budget.

 

a)     Current consumption expenditure on commodities.

 

b)     Current consumption expenditure on services

 

c)     Transfer payments

 

d)     Expenditure on machinery

 

12.     Pick out the item which is not a part of non-tax revenue,

 

a) Interest Receipts              b) Dividends

c) Customs                           d) Profits

13.     Pick out the item which is not a part of tax revenue.

 

a) Interest b) Corporate Tax c) Excise d) Customs

 

14.      Pick out the item which is not a part of non-plan expenditure on the revenue side.

 

a) Defense

              b) Central Assistance to states

c) Subsidies

d) None of the above

 

15.   Debts which have to be paid at some specific future date are known as

 

a) Redeemable Debts

b) Irredeemable Debts

c) Treasury

d) None of the above

 

16.      Loans taken by the government for purpose of war, earthquakes for covering budget deficit are -

 

a) Productive Debts                                       b) Unproductive

 

c) Voluntary Debts                                         d) None of the above

 

17.     Which of the following is not an objective of public debt management.

 

a)     Loans at low cost

 

b)     Repayment over a long period

 

c)     Stabilization of the level of economic activity

 

d)     Economic growth

 

18.     Which is / are the advantages of redemption of debt.

 

a)     Saves the government from bankruptcy

 

b)     Reduces Cost

 

c)     Saves future generation from the pressure of public debt

 

d)     All of the above

 

19.     Pick out the feature which is not true in the case of repudiation of debt.

 

a)     Simplest method of liquidating a debt.

 

b)     It will increase the credibility of the government.

 

c)     Debtors may face loss.

 

d)     It is discriminating

 

20.     Pick out the method which is not a part of redemption,

 

a) Sinking Fund b) Surplus Budget c) Terminal Annuities d) Refunding

 

21.      The method by which a certain portion matures every year as decided by the lottery system.

 

a) Sinking Fund b) Surplus Revenues c) Terminal Annuities d) None of the above

 

22.     Pick out the feature which is not true of a capital levy.

 

a)     For paying off unproductive debt.

 

b)     It is paid by those who earn huge profits.

 

c)     It does not follow the principle of equity.

 

d)     It helps to fight inflation.

 

23.  Which of the following is the most comprehensive measure of budgetary imbalances?

 

a)     Fiscal Deficit b) Revenue Deficit

 

     c) Primary Deficit d) All of the above

 

24.      The full form of FRBM Act 2003 is-

 

1.     Fiscal Regulation and Budget Management Act, 2003.

 

2.     Fiscal Regulation and Banking Management Act, 2003.

 

3.     Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

 

4.     Financial Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003.

 

25.      When budget revenue equals expenditure the budget shows –

 

a) Balance                                                 b) Deficit

 

c) Surplus                                                          d) None of the above

 

26.     The term fiscal federalism was introduced by -


a) Dalton                                                            b) Seligman

 

c) Musgrave                                                     d) None of the above

 

27.     The theory of fiscal federalism assumes -

 

1.     A federal system of government can be efficient and effective in solving problems.

 

2.     A federal government will be able to bring about economic stability allocation of resources.

 

3.     Since states and localities are not equal in their income, federalism is helpful.

 

4.     All of the above

 

 

[  Ans.: (1 - d), (2 - b), (3 - a), (4 - a), (5 - b), (6 - d), (7 - d), (8 - c), (9 - d), (10 - c), (11 - d), (12 - c), (13 - a), (14 - b), (15 - a), (16 - b), (17 - b), (18 - d), (19 - b), (20 - d), (21 - c), (22 - c), (23 - a), (24 - c), (25 - a), (26 - c), (27 - d)]


 

 

Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

 

Correct answer indicated by 

 

1. Positive economics

(a) does not depend on market interactions.

(b) only looks at the best parts of the economy.

(c) examines how the economy actually works (as opposed to how it should work).

(d) is very subjective.

 

2. The Coase theorem has problems because

(a) generally, bargaining costs are not zero.

(b) individuals are not concerned with others.

(c) markets always exist.

(d) all of the above.

 

3. The marginal rate of substitution is

(a) the slope of the Pareto curve.

(b) the slope of the contract curve.

(c) the slope of the utility possibilities curve.

(d) the slope of the indifference curve.

 

4. The slope of the production possibilities curve is the

(a) marginal rate of substitution.

(b) contract curve.

(c) marginal rate of transformation.

(d) offer curve.

(e) Engel curve.

 

5. The First Fundamental Theorem of Welfare Economics requires

(a) producers and consumers to be price takers.

(b) that there be an efficient market for every commodity.

(c) that the economy operate at some point on the utility possibility curve.

(d) all of the above.

 

6. The economic incidence of a unit tax is

(a) generally borne by the buyers.

(b) generally borne by sellers.

(c) generally borne by the government.

(d) independent of the statutory incidence for the tax.

(e) none of the above

 

 

7. Market failure can occur when

(a) monopoly power exists in the market.

(b) markets are missing.

(c) consumers can influence prices.

(d) moral hazard and adverse selection exist

(e) all of the above.

 

8. A public good is

(a) a good that the public must pay for.

(b) nonrival in consumption.

(c) more costly than a private good.

(d) paid for by the government.

 

9. Movement from an inefficient allocation to an efficient allocation in the Edgeworth Box will

(a) increase the utility of all individuals.

(b) increase the utility of at least one individual, but may decrease the level of utility of another person.

(c) increase the utility of one individual, but cannot decrease the utility of any individual.

(d) decrease the utility of all individuals.

 

10. Points on the utility possibility frontier are

(a) inefficient.

(b) points of incomplete preferences.

(c) not producible.

(d) Pareto efficient.

 

11. The economic theory of optimal health care provision says that

(a) It is socially optimal for free medical treatment to be provided to everyone

(b) Everyone should pay their own medical expenses because they will set marginal cost equal to marginal benefit.

(c) Adverse selection can prevent efficient insurance markets from developing even when everyone buys the same insurance.

(d) The optimal health care system will ration care: Some people who would benefit from treatment should be denied that treatment.

(e) Moral hazard is not a problem because nobody would intentionally do something that might make them sick.

 

12. Market mechanisms are unlikely to provide

(a) prices.

(b) non-rival goods efficiently.

(c) supply and demand.

(d) none of the above.

 

13. Public goods can be

(a) provided privately.

(b) provided publicly.

(c) subject to free rider problems.

(d) all of the above.

 

14. Externalities can be positive because

(a) marginal damages do not last over time.

(b) utility can be impacted positively as well as negatively.

(c) there is no concept for marginal benefit.

(d) positive externalities are subsidies.

 

15. A Pigouvian subsidy

(a) cannot exist with externalities.

(b) is the same thing as a Pigouvian tax.

(c) is measured in terms of Pigouvian dollars.

(d) moves production to the socially optimal level of output

 

16. Which method can help in obtaining a welfare improvement if externalites exist?

(a) Pigouvian taxes

(b) regulation

(c) assigning property rights and permitting bargaining

(d) all of the above

 

17. Marginal damages

(a) must always be considered in social marginal costs.

(b) must not be considered in social marginal costs.

(c) must sometimes be considered in social marginal costs.

(d) have nothing to do with social marginal costs.

18. In a public goods context, it is difficult to measure impact on real income because

(a) public goods are generally free to the public.

(b) they make up a small percentage of total GDP.

(c) it is hard to measure how people value the public good.

(d) inflation decreases the value of the good.

 

19. A fully funded Social Security plan requires

(a) negative generational accounts

(b) no taxes since current workers pay for current retirees.

(c) future generations to pay for the benefits of current retirees

(d) retirees to be paid from investments that have accumulated with interest over their working lives.

(e) all of the above.

 

20. Social insurance can be justified on the grounds of

(a) adverse selection.

(b) decision-making costs.

(c) income distribution.

(d) paternalism.

(e) all of the above.

 

21. Statutory incidence of a tax deals with

(a) the amount of revenue left over after taxes.

(b) the amount of taxes paid after accounting for inflation.

(c) the person(s) legally responsible for paying the tax.

(d) the amount of tax revenue generated after a tax is imposed.

(e) none of the above.

 

22. An ad valorem tax is

(a) given as a proportion of the price.

(b) Latin for “buyer beware.”

(c) identical to a unit tax.

(d) computed using the “inverse taxation rule.”

 

23. Lump sum taxes

(a) create no excess burden.

(b) are not as widely used as other forms of taxation.

(c) generally lack a sense of equity.

(d) all of the above.

(e) none of the above.

 

24. If the proceeds from a Pigouvian tax are used to income tax rates, then

efficiency in both markets.

(a) increase; increases

(b) reduce; reduces

(c) increase; reduces

(d) reduce; increases

(e) none of the above

 

25. “For goods that are unrelated in consumption, efficiency requires that tax rates be inversely proportional to elasticities.” This is the definition of

(a) the benefits-received principle.

(b) the Ramsey Rule.

(c) the second best principle.

(d) the inverse elasticity rule.

(e) horizontal equity

 

 

Top of Form

 

Bottom of Form

 

 


Post a Comment

0 Comments