FINANCIAL MARKETS
AND OPERATIONS Multiple Choice Questions:
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1. |
SEBI was established in the
year---------------- |
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(a)
1992 |
(b) 1988 |
(c) 1990 |
(d) 1989 |
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2. |
SEBI Act was passed in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
1988 |
(b) 1990 |
(c) 1991 |
(d) 1992 |
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3. |
The objectives of SEBI
include ------------- |
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(a) To protect the interests of inventors
(b) To regulate the securities market
(c) To promote the development of the market
(d) All of the above
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4. |
The regulatory body for the
securities market in India is ------------ |
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(a)
RBI |
(b) SEBI |
(c) IRDA |
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(d)
Stock exchanges |
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5. |
Who appoints the chairman of SEBI? |
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(a)
Central government |
(b)
Stock exchanges |
(c) Brokers |
(d) Investors |
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6. |
The administrative head
office of SEBI is at |
------------ |
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(a)
New Delhi |
(b)
Bombay |
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(c)
Kolkata |
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(d) Chennai |
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7. |
SEBI has ------------ |
regional offices. |
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(a)
3 |
(b) 4 |
(c) 5 |
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(d) 7 |
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8. |
The present chairman of
SEBI is --------------- |
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(a)
Ajay Tyagi |
(b) U.K. Sinha |
(c) C.B.
Bhave |
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(d) Vijay C Kelkar |
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9. |
SEBI Ombudsman was
introduced in -------------- |
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(a)
2000 |
(b) 2002 |
(c) 2003 |
(d) 2005 |
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10. |
SENSEX is the index of
-------------------- |
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(a)
Bombay stock exchange |
(b) National stock exchange |
(c) Cochin stock exchange |
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(d) None of these |
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11. |
The base year of Nifty is ------------- |
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(a) 1992 |
(b) 1978 |
(c) 1987 |
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(d) 1995 |
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12. |
Bulls and bears are
------------- |
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(a) Ordinary investors (b) Government agencies |
c) Speculators |
(d) Money lenders |
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13. |
A depository is
------------------ |
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(a) An electronic transfer through dematerialization
(b) A fixed deposit in a bank
(c) A transfer of physical securities
(d) Surveillance on price manipulation
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14. |
Listing is mandatory for ------------------ |
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(a) Trading |
in |
stock |
market |
(b) |
Marketing |
a |
new |
issue |
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(c) Trading in international markets |
(d) Declaring dividend |
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15. |
A stock market index |
------------- |
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(a) |
Shows |
trends |
in |
the |
market |
(b) |
Provides |
weights |
to |
shares |
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(c) Show the volume of trade in market |
(d) Shows transactions of shares |
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16. |
A lame duck is a --------------- |
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(a)
bull who does not keep his |
promise |
(b) |
bear |
who cannot keep his
commitments |
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(c)
cautious speculator |
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(d) premium hunter |
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17. |
Which of the following is a global stock
market index? |
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(a) OTCEI index |
(b) Nifty |
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(c) Sensex |
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(d)
FTSE100 |
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18. |
Which of the following is not a global stock
market index? |
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(a)
DJIA |
(b) S&P 500 index |
(c)
MCSI index |
(d) S& P CNX. |
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19. |
S&P CNX was introduced
in --------------- |
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(a)
1996 |
(b) 1998 |
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(c) 1986 |
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(d) None of these |
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20. |
The base year of BSE Sensex
is -------------- |
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(a)
1978‐79 |
(b) 1979‐80 |
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(c) 1977‐78 |
(d) None of these |
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21. |
The base year of CNX nifty junior is ---------------- |
. |
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(a)
1997 |
(b) 1996 |
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(c) 1999 |
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(d) 1995 |
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22. |
The number of scrip’s included in nifty junior is
-------------- |
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(a)
40 |
(b) 50 |
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(c) 30 |
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(d) 100 |
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23. |
CDSL is established in ---------------- |
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(a)
2000 |
(b) 1999 |
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(c) 1998 |
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(d) 1997 |
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24. |
Depositories Act is enacted
in |
----------------- |
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(a)
1993 |
(b) 1998 |
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(c) 1997 |
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(d) 1996 |
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25. |
The present rolling
settlements cycle T+2 is introduced in --------------- |
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(a)
2003 |
(b) 2001 |
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(c) 2000 |
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(d) 2008 |
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26. Group A consists of -----------------.
(a) Cleared securities (B) Non‐
Cleared securities (c) Government securities (d) None of these. 27. Permanent
removal of securities of a company from the stock exchange.
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(A)
De-listing |
(b)
Re‐
listing |
(c) Listing |
(d) None of these |
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28. |
The Nifty consists of
----------------- |
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(a)
30 stocks |
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(b) 25 stocks |
(c) 50 stocks |
(d) 100 stocks |
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29. |
A control system on
excessive fluctuation in stock market prices is called------------- |
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(a) Circuit breaker |
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(b) Stock index |
(c) Depository |
(d) None of these |
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30. |
The numbers of recognized
stock exchanges in India is |
----------. |
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(a)
20 |
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(b) 21 |
(c) 22 |
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(d) 23 |
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31. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the market where the
existing securities of companies are traded. |
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(a) Primary market |
(b) Secondary market |
(c) Money market |
(d) None
of these |
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32. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the process of
admitting securities for trading on a recognized stock exchange. |
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(a)
Issuing |
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(b) Investing |
(c) Listing |
(d) None of these |
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33. Devise adopted to make profit out of the
difference in prices of a security in two different markets is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a)
Arbitrage (b) Margin trading (c) Call option (d) None of these 34. The number
of store which is less than the standard unit is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Arbitrage (b) Margin trading (c) Odd lots (d) None of these
35.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a professional independent broker who deals
in securities on his own
behalf.
(a) Arbitrage (b) Jobber (c) Odd lots (d) None of these
36. A person appointed by a stock broker to assist
him in the business of securities trading is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Sub broker (b) Tarawaniwalas (c) Authorized clerk (d) None of these
37. Speculators who neither buy nor sell securities
in the market but still trade on them are called
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Wolves (b) Stags (c) Bears (d) None of these
38. The process of hedging the entire supply of a
particular security with a view to dictating term is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Wash sale (b) Arbitrage (c) Cornering (d) None of these
39. Under depository system the allotment and credit
of shares to the beneficiary amount should be completed within how many days
from the date of an issue?
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(a)
15 days |
(b) 21 days |
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(c) 7 days |
(d) 14 days |
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40.
Member of stock exchanges is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
Stock broker |
(b) Investor |
(c) Issuer |
(d) None of these |
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41.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ buy and sell securities on behalf of the
investing public. |
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(a)
Arbitrage |
(b) Commission brokers |
(c) Stock broker |
(d) None of these |
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42.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the person who buys securities with a view
to sell them in future at a profit.
(a) Speculator (b) Issuer (c) Stock brokers (d) None of these
43. A person who sells the shares with the
expectation of buying them in future at a reduced price.
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(a)
Bull |
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(b) Bear |
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(c) Stag |
(d) None of these |
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44. |
In the Indian stock exchange a bull is known
as ------------. |
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(a)
Badla |
(b) Tejiwala |
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(c) Mandiwala |
(d) None
of these |
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45. |
Risk involved in gambling
is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a) High |
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(b) Low |
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(c) Very high |
(d) None
of these |
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46. |
The process of artificially
increasing or decreasing the price is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a) Price bond |
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(b)
Price rigging |
(c) Cover system |
(d) None
of these |
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47. |
An order for the purchase
of securities of a fixed price is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a) Limit order |
(b) Open
order |
(c) Stop loss order (d) None of these |
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48. |
The electronic clearing and Depository system
set up by the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
SGL |
(b) SHCIL |
(c) HCL |
(d) None of these |
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49. |
National stock exchange
operations are divided into ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ and capital market segment. |
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(a) Whole sale debt market |
(b) Money market |
(c)
Secondary market (d) None of these |
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50. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a market where unlisted securities are
dealing. |
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(a) Grey market |
(b) Kerb market |
(c) Capital markets |
(d) None of these |
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51. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a barometer for market
behavior. |
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(a) Investment |
(b) Index |
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(c) Arbitrage |
(d) None of these |
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52. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a number which measures
the change in a set of values over a period of |
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time. |
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(a)
Index |
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(b) Sample |
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(c) Weightage |
(d) None of these |
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53. |
Securities of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ companies are traded in
secondary market. |
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(a)
Listed |
(b)
Relisted |
(c) Unlisted |
(d) None of these |
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54. |
Which of the following is considered as means
off balance sheet financing? |
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(a)
Derivation |
(b) Equities |
(c) Debts |
(d) None of these |
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55. |
An option exercised at the time of maturity it
is termed as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
American option |
(b) European option |
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(c) Call options |
(d) None of these |
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56. |
An option exercised at any
time, it is termed as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
American option |
(b) European option |
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(c) Call options |
(d) None of these |
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57. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ options are contract where exercise price is
equal to spot price. |
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(a) At the money |
(b) In the money |
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(c) Out
the money |
(d) None of these |
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58. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are called non‐cleared securities. |
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(a) Group B share |
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(b) Group A share |
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(c)
Group G shares |
(d) None of these |
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59. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ includes government
securities. |
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(a) Group B share |
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(b) Group A share |
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(c)
Group G shares |
(d) None of these |
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60. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ includes fixed income
securities. |
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(a) Group A share |
(b) Group B share |
(c)
Group F shares |
(d) Group G shares |
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61. |
---------------- consists of scrips which are
traded on trade to trade basis for market |
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surveillance reasons. |
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(a) Group S share |
(b) Group T shares |
(c) Group F shares |
(d) Group G shares |
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62. |
--------------- represents
scrips forming part of the BSE Indonext segment. |
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(a) Group S share |
(b) Group T shares |
(c) Group F shares |
(d) Group G shares |
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63. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the first depository in
India. |
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(a)
Central depository services India Ltd. |
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(b) National securities
depository Ltd. |
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(c) State of India depository services Ltd. |
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(d) None of these |
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64. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the second depository in India. |
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(a) |
Central depository |
services |
India |
Ltd. |
(b)
National securities |
depository Ltd. |
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(c) State of India depository services Ltd. |
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(d) None of these |
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65. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ means eliminating the
paper certificates and maintaining records in the form |
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of electronic entries only. |
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(a) Dematerialization |
(b) Depository |
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(c) Stock market index |
(d) None of these |
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66. |
A speculator expert’s rise
in price of a share is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a) Bull (b) Bear (c) Stag (d) Lame
duck
67.
A new index called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is developed by NSE.
(a) S&P
CNX nifty (b) BSE 200 & DOLLEX 200 (c) BSEI PO Index (d) None of these 68. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the
process of converting physical paper share into demat share.
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(a)
Dematerialization |
(b) Depository |
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(c) Dematerialization |
(d) None of these |
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69. |
QIP stands for |
------------ |
. |
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(a) |
Qualified |
institutional |
placement |
(b) |
Qualified |
industrial |
placement |
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(c) Qualified investment placement |
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(d) None of these |
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70. |
Futures and option are |
------------- |
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(a) Derivatives |
(b) Speculators |
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(c) Money lenders |
(d) Ordinary investors |
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71. |
An offer document prepared
for the purpose of QIP is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
Placement document |
(b)
Speculation |
(c) Dematerialization |
(d) None of these |
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72. --------------- deals with creation of new and
improved financial products through innovative design or repackaging of
existing financial instruments.
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(a) Financial intermediation (b) Financial engineering |
(c) Financial
instrumentation (d) None of |
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the
above |
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73. |
Bull and ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are speculators. |
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(a)
Bear |
(b) Cow |
(c) Lion |
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(d) None of these |
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74. |
Computers are linked by
satellite through ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ in NSE. |
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(a)
VAST |
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(b) SGL |
(c) SHCIL |
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(d) None of these |
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75. |
Members of OTCEI are ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ only. |
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(a)
Corporate |
(b) Derivatives |
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(c) Speculators |
(d) None of these |
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76. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a market for dealing in
unlisted securities. |
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(a) Grey market |
(b) Kerb market |
(c) Capital market |
(d) None of these |
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77. |
The first stock exchange in India was started
in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
1875 |
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(b) 1885 |
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(c) 1895 |
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(d) 1865 |
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78. |
A depository is an
institution which transfers the ownership of securities in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ |
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mode. |
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(a)
Electronic (b) Artificial |
(c) Analytical |
(d) None of these |
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79. |
Depository participant is the link between the
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ and the owner. |
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(a)
Depository |
(b)
Government |
(c) Corporate |
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(d) None of these |
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80. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ system reduces time for transfer for transfer
of securities. |
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(a)
Depository |
(b) government |
(c) Investment |
(d) None of these |
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81. |
Depository system leads to ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a) Scrip less system |
(b) Online system |
(c) Offline system |
(d) None of these |
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82. |
An instrument which derives
its value from an asset backing it is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
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(a)
Derivatives |
(b) Depository |
(c) Documentation |
(d) None of these |
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83. |
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ contracts are not at all standardized. |
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(a)
Forward |
(b) Option |
(c) Swap |
(d) None of these |
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84.
The trader who promises to buy in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ contract is said to be in ‘long position’.
(a) Forward (b) Option (c) Swap (d) None of these
85.
In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ contract the seller is referred to as a
‘writer’.
(a) Forward (b) Option (c) Swap (d) None of these
86.
Financial ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are mainly used for hedging risk.
(a) Derivatives (b) Speculators (c) Investors (d) None of these
87. A combination
of forwards by 2 counter‐parties with opposite but matching need is
called
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
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(a)
Swap |
(b) Forward |
(c) Future |
(d) None of these |
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88. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ contracts are standardized. |
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(a)
Future |
(b) Forward |
(c) Swap |
(d) None of these |
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89. Agreed price of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ contract is known as
strike price. |
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(a)
Future |
(b) Option |
(c) Swap |
(d) None of these |
90. The pre‐ determined price at which an underlying asset
has to be bought or sold is an option contract is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Exercise price (b)Agreed price (c) Strike price (d) None of these
91.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ gives the option holder a right to buy an underlying asset at an
exercise price in
future.
(a) Call option (b) Put option (c) Call and put (d) None of these
92. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a contract for temporary exchange of
obligation that each party has under its respective contract.
(a) Swap (b) Forward (b) Option (d) None of
these 93. OTCEI stands for Over the Counter ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ of India.
(a) Exchange (b) Expand (c) Extent (c) None of these
94. CDSL stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
|
(a) |
Central Depository Services Ltd. (b) Central
Derivatives Services Ltd. (c) Central |
||||
|
Derivatives
System Ltd (d) Central Deposit System Ltd |
|
||||
|
95. National securities depository Ltd incorporated on ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. |
|
||||
|
(a)
December 12, 1995 |
(b) December 21, 1995 |
(c) December 21 1985 |
|||
|
(d)
None of these |
|
|
|
|
|
|
96.
‐ ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ means the worth of shareholding. |
|
||||
|
(a) Market capitalization |
(b) market creation (c) market specification |
(d) none
of these |
|||
|
97. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ measured in dollar term. |
|
|
|||
|
(a) S&P CNX nifty |
(b)BSE SENSEX |
(c) BSE 200 and DOLLEX
200 (d) none of these |
|||
|
98.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ was introduced in Jan 1986. |
|
||||
|
(a)
BSE SENSEX |
(b)S &P CNX nifty |
(c) BSE 200 and DOLLEX |
(d) none of these |
||
99. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers to
permanent removal of securities of a listed company from a stock
exchange.
(a) Compulsory de listing (b) Voluntary delisting (c) Listing (d)
Relisting
100.
In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐-------, a listed company decides on its own to
permanently remove its securities from a stock exchange.
(a) Compulsory delisting (b) Voluntary delisting (c) Relisting (d)
Listing
101. Most of the speculative purchases are made on
the basis of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Margin trading (b) Arbitrage (c) Wash sale (d) none of these
102. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the fictitious transaction.
(a) Margin trading (b) Arbitrage (c) Wash sale (d) none of these
103.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ means artificially pushing
up the market price of a particular security.
(A) Rigging (b) Cornering (c) Margin trading (d) none of these
104.
Rigging activity
is carried on by the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ speculators.
(a) Bull (b) Swap (c) Bear (d) Lame duck
105. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is highly specialized and skilled speculative activity.
(a) Margin trading (b) Arbitrage (c) Wash sale (d) none of these
106.
National
securities clearing corporation Ltd. established in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) 1994 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1998
107.
National
securities clearing corporation Ltd established in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) 1995 (b) 1996 (c) 1997 (d) 1998
108. National Securities Depository Ltd established
in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) 1995 (b) 1996 (c) 1997 (d) 1998
109. OTCEI was incorporated in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
110.
The number of de‐organized
stock exchanges in India.
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) None of these
111. National stock exchange of India situated at ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Bangalore (b) Hyderabad (c) Bombay (d) None of these
112. All activities related to finance and organized
into a system called ‐‐‐‐----‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Capital market (b) Money market (c) Financial system (d) open market
113.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is termed as the lifeblood of a firm.
(a) Employee (b) Finance (c) Management (d)
Technology
114.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers to
the activity of transforming savings into investment.
(a) Resource development (b) Capital formation (c) Credit
syndication (d) None of these
115.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ can be
defined as activities, benefits and satisfactions connected with the sale of
money that offer to users and customers, financial related value.
(a) Money market (b) Stock exchange (c) Financial services (d) Financial management
116.
The ratio of
financial assets is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ of economic growth.
(a) an indicator (b) the market value (c) the basis (d) the prestige value
117. Capital market is a market for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ capital.
(a) Long term capital (b) Short term capital (c) Working capital (d) Fixed
capital
118.
SEBI stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Securities Exchange Board of India (b) Stock
Exchange Board of India (c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (d) Stock
Earn Board of India
119.
Equity shares are
the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ shares of a limited company
(a) Voting (b) Ordinary (c) Limited (d) Unlimited
120.
Equity
shares and preference
shares are ownership
securities, also known
as
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Debt capital (b) Capital stock (c) Fixed capital (d) Capital issue
121.
Bonds, debentures
etc. are creditor ship securities, also known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Debt capital (b) Capital stock (c) Working capital (d) Capital issue
122.
Equity shares
with detachable warrants will enable the warrant holder to apply for specified
number of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ at determined price.
(a)Preference shares (b) Equity shares (c) Bonds (d) Debentures
123.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are equity shares issued by the company to
employees or directors at a discount or for consideration other than cash.
(a) Derivatives (b) Securitized instruments (c) Sweat equity shares (d) detachable warrants
124.
The companies Act
(Sec. 85) describes preference shares as those which carry a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
right to payment of dividend during the life
time of the company.
(a) Dividend (b) Interest (c) Preferential (d) Priority
125. Convertible preference shares can be converted
to equity shares at the option of the holder, so these shares are also known as
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a)
Conversion of preference shares (b) Quasi equity shares (c) fully convertible
preference shares (d) Participating preference shares
126.
Debenture is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ instrument issued by the company with a promise
to pay interest and repay the principal on maturity.
(a) Credit (b) Debt (c) Cash (d)
Negotiable
127.
Government bonds
are fixed income debt instruments issued by the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
to finance their capital requirements or
developments projects.
128. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ issued by the central government or state
governments are referred to as government securities.
(a) Instruments (b) Securities (c) Bonds (d) Shares
129. Government securities are also called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ because of the safety and security of
investments made in them and regularity of return.
(a) Gift‐edged securities (b)
Long term securities (c) Short term securities (d) Investments
130. Government securities are issued through ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ of RBI.
(a) Public debt office (b) SEBI (c) DFHI (d) Stock exchange
131. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ issued by a foreign entity, such as bank or company, but is issued and
traded in the United States and denominated in U.S. dollars.
(a) Bonds (b) GDR (c) IDR (d) Yankee bonds
132. RBI established ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ in 1988 to
perform the money market operations on its behalf.
(a) SEBI (b) RBI office (c) DFHI (d) SBI
133.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is a unsecured promissory note issued with a
fixed maturity, by a company, and approved by RBI, maturity from 7 days to one
year, issued at a discount on the face value.
(a)
Certificate of Deposits (b) Treasury
bill (c) Commercial Bills (d) Commercial
papers
134. A repurchase agreement, the repurchase price
will be greater than the original sale price, the difference effectively
representing interest, known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Interest rate (b) Repo rate (c) Repo charge (d) Repo
commission
135. SGL stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a)
Subsidiary General Ledger (b) Sub General Ledger (c) Subsidiary General Loan
(d) Subsidiary g‐loan.
136.
SEBI was given a
statutory status in the year of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ by an act of parliament.
(a) 1992 (b) 1988 (c) 1993 (d) 1991
137.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is the trading of securities of a company by
individuals who are in some way connected with the company and has to non‐public
price sensitive information about the company.
(a) Speculative trading (b) Hedging (c) Insider trading (d)
Internal trading
138. MAPIN stands for Market Participant
---------------.
(a) Individual Number (b) Identification (c) Institutions (d) None of these
139.
NBFCs stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Non Banking Fund Company (b) Non-Banking
Financial Companies (c) Non Banking Finance Council (d) None of these
140.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is an
independent body to assist the regulators in framing and administering regulating
in the capital market. E.g. Finance industry development council.
(a) SNO (b) SRO (c) RBI (d) SEBI
141.
Origination,
underwriting and distribution are the 3 main services of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
market.
(a) Capital market (b) Secondary market (c) SEBI (d) Primary market
142. IPO stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Initial Public Offer (b) Initial Public
Offering (c) Individual Public offer (d) none of these
143.
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ means an
option of alloting equity shares in excess of the equity shares offered in the
public issue as a post‐listing price stabilising mechanism.
(a) GSP (b)
SRO (c) Green shoe option (d) None of these
144.
Bonus issue is
the issue of shares to ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ out of the free reserves of the company.
(a)
Existing shareholders (b) New shareholders (c) None of these (d) All of them
145.
ESOP stands for‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Employers Stock Option Plan(b) Employees
Stock Option Plan (c) Employees Stock Option Premium (d) Employees Stock
Ownership Plan
146.
Underwriters charge a commission for their
service which is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a)
Commission (b) Penalty (c) Underwriting charge (d) Underwriting commission
147.
Stock broker
means a member of a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) SBI (d) Stock exchange
148.
Net Tangible
assets means all net assets excluding ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ assets.
(a)Tangible assets (b) Intangible assets (c) Total assets (d) None of these
149.
Market makers are
intermediaries appointed by ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ to sell or buy its securities at any time as
per agreed contract.
(a) RBI (b) Stock exchange (c) Company (d) None of these
150.
QIB stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Qualified Institutional Buyer (b) Qualified
Institutional Bonds (c) Qualified Information for Buyers (d) All of these
151.
Shares can be
distributed through outright sale by companies to select group of persons, this
is known as ---------------.
(a) Public issue (b) Private placement (c) Institutions (d)
Underwriting
152. Market for borrowing and lending short term
funds is called ---------------.
(a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Derivative market (d) Forex market
153. Who controls money market?
(a) RBI (b) SBI (c) DFHI (d) SIDBI
154. Which of the following markets help RBI in
implementing its monetary policies?
(a) Money market (b) Capital market (c) Forex market (d) Debt
market
155.
Which of the
following debt instrument is issued by large credit worthy companies as a means
for financing their working capital needs?
(a) CP (b) CD (c) IBPC (d)
Commercial bills
156.
Money market
deals with:
(a) Short term funds (b) Long term funds (c)
Ownership funds (d) Credit rating
157.
What is the
minimum issue size of commercial papers?
(a) 10 lakh (b) 5 Lakh (c) 5crore (d) 2 lakh
158.
Certificate of
deposits were introduced in the Indian market in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) 1989 (b) 1990 (c) 1991 (d) 1988
159. The maturity period of CDs issued by banks
varies from -------------.
(a) 7 days to 1 year (b) 7 days to 3 years (c) 1 day to 1 year (d) 1 and 3 years
160. An instrument to fund the short term needs of
banks through inter‐bank participation.
(a) CDs (b) Inter Bank Repo (c) CPs (d) IBPCs
161. The CRISIL rating needed for corporates to issue
a commercial paper.
(a) CRISIL P-1 (b) CRISIL P-2 (c)
CRISIL P-3 (d)
None of these
162. An important money market is instrument by the
government to bridge the deficit between the revenue and expenditure in the
budget.
(a) T‐bills (b) Bonds (c) CDs (d) CPs
163. A loan for very short period is called
--------------.
(a)
Call loans (b) cash loans (c) T‐bills (d) None of these
164.
A market for
borrowing / lending of funds for a period of one day to 14 days.
(a) Term money market (b) Call money market (c)
Commercial bills market (d) None of these
165.
GSO stands for
----------.
(a)
Golden shoe option (b) Green shoe option (c) Green stock option (d) None of
these
166.
Issue of equity
shares to QIBs on private placement basis is called --------------.
(a) Qualified institutions placement (b)
Preferential placement (c) Initial public offer (d) None of these
167. Issue of shares to the existing shareholders out
of the free reserves of the company is called -----------------.
(a) Bonus issue (b) Right issue (c) ESOP (d) SWEAT
equity
168. A pricing mechanism for new issues based on
assessment of market demand.
(a) Book buiding (b) Green shoe option (c) Fixed price issue (d) None of these
169. QIP stands for ------------------.
(a)
Qualified Institutional Placement
(b)
Qualified Investment Placement
(c)
Qualified Investor Placement
170.
Public issue
means IPO and ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) ESOP (b) Rights issue (c) Bonus issue (d) FPO
171. FPO and IPO can be either a fresh issue or ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐.
(a) Offer for sale (b) Offer of sale (c) Private placement (d) None of these
172.
According to Companies Act, an issue becomes
public if it is an allotment to more than
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ persons.
(a) 49 (b) 51 (c) 50 (d) None of these
173.
An offer of securities to the public for the
first time by an utilized issuer is called ---------.
(a) FPO (b) IPO (c) DPO (d) None of these
174.
A fresh issue or
offer for sale of securities made by a listed company to the public is called
-------------.
(a) FPO (b) IPO (c) DPO (d) None of these
175.
A market for
borrowing and lending funds for a period exceeding 14 days.
(a)
Term money market (b) Call money market(c)
Commercial bill market (d) None of these
176.
An offer document
in case of a public issue is --------------.
(a)
Prospectus (b) Red herring prospectus (c) Letter of offer (d) None of these
177. A prospectus which does not have details of
either price or number of shares offer or the amount of issue.
(a) Red herring prospectus (b) Statement in lieu of
prospectus (c) Shelf prospectus (d) None of these
178. An investor who applies or bids for securities
for a value not more than Rs.2 lakh.
(a) Retail individual investor (b) Qualified
institutional buyer (c) Non‐ institutional investor (d) None of these
179.
Which of the
following is not a QIB?
(a) Mutual funds (b) Foreign institutional investors
(c) Retail individual investor (d) Scheduled commercial banks
|
180. |
The time limit for
allotting securities from the date of closure of the issue is |
--------------. |
||||||
|
(a)
15 days |
|
(b)
30 days |
(c) 45 days |
(d) None of these |
|
|||
|
181. |
In case of a book built
issue, the allocation to retail investor should not be ----------- |
. |
||||||
|
(a) Less than 35% |
(b) More than 35% |
(c) Less than 10% |
(d) None of these |
|
||||
|
182. |
A security used by RBI to
adjust liquidity in the financial system is called -------------- |
. |
||||||
|
(a)
REPO |
|
(b) CDs |
(c) CPs |
(d) TBs |
|
|
||
|
183. |
An unsecured loan extended
by one corporate to another is called |
------------- |
. |
|||||
|
(a)
IBPCs |
(b) Commercial bills |
|
(c) CDs |
(d) ICDs |
|
|
||
|
184. |
Bonds issue at a discount
and redeemed prior to its maturity is called ----------------- |
. |
||||||
|
(a) Mortage bonds |
(b) Zero coupon bonds |
(c) Convertible bonds |
(d) None
of these |
|||||
|
185. |
A bond that can be redeemed
prior to its maturity is called --------------- |
. |
|
|||||
|
(a) Callable bonds (b) Option bonds |
(c) Step‐up bonds (d) Non‐callable bonds |
|||||||
186.
Bonds where interest rate is a fixed percentage
over the whole sale price index is called
---------------.
(a)
Capital index bonds (b) Fixed rate bonds (c) Step‐down bonds (d)
None of these
187. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ can be referred to as merchant bankers to
Government of India.
|
(a) Primary dealers |
(b) RBI |
(c) Satellite dealers |
(d) None of these |
|
||
|
188. |
The equity shares issued by
a company to its employees or directors are called ------------ |
. |
||||
|
(a)
SWEAT Equity |
(b)
Non-voting shares |
(c) Equity shares |
(d) Preference shares |
|
||
|
189. |
MMMF stands for
--------------- |
. |
|
|
|
|
|
(a)
Money Market Mutual Funds |
|
(b) Monetary Market Mutual Funds |
|
|||
|
(c)
Money Medium Mutual Funds |
|
(d) None of these |
|
|
||
190.
Sale of
securities together with an agreement by the seller to buy back the securities
at a later date.
(a) REPOs (b) CBLO (c) ICDs (d) CDs.
191. Insider
trading means -------------.
(a) Purchase of securities by owners of the company
(b) Taking advantage of internal price sensitive
information for trading
(c) Trade for purchase of shares only by employees
(d) Investors sell their financial paper to
relatives of the firms.
192.
The fraudulent and unfair trade practices
relating to securities market regulation in 2003
was passed to prohibit --------------------.
(a) Insider trading practices
(b) Brokers from illegal trading
(c) Foreign institutional investors in the market
(d) Manipulation of prices and misleading
statements.
193. --------------
mutual fund investment instruments deal with units that are purchased or
redeemed throughout the year.
(a) Open ended (b) Close ended (c) Income fund (d) Growth
fund
194. --------------
mutual fund investment instruments deal with units that can be purchased
during initial period only and redeemed on a
specific maturity date.
(a) Open ended (b) Close ended (c) Income fund (d) Growth
fund
195. Purchase or redemption of open ended mutual
funds are done at persisting ----------------.
(a) Market Value (b) Net Asset Value (c) Investment Value (d) None of these
196.
The mutual fund
scheme that provides capital appreciation through investing their money
majorly in equity stocks is called
---------------.
(a) Growth fund (b) Income fund (c)
Liquid fund (d) Fund of fund
197. The mutual fund scheme in which the investor
investing their money majorly in fixed
income instruments such as debentures, bonds
etc. is called --------------.
(b) Growth fund (b) Income fund (c)
Liquid fund (d) Fund of fund
198. ELSS
stands for ---------------.
(a) Enterprise Linked Saving Scheme
(b) Equity Linked Savings Scheme
(c) Equity Linking Savings System
(d) Entrepreneurs Linking Savings System
199. Equity Linked Savings Scheme has a minimum
lock in period of -----------------. (a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 5
years 200. The regulatory body of mutual funds in India is ---------------. (a)
RBI (b) SEBI (c) IRDA (d) Government
1. 1988
2. 1992
3. All of the above
4. SEBI
5. Central Govt.
6. Bombay
7. 4
8. Ajay Tyagi
9. 2003
10. Bombay stock exchange
11. 1995
12. Speculators
13. An
electronic transfer through dematerialization
14. Trading in stock market
15. Shows trends in market
16. is a bear who cannot keep his commitment
17. FTSE 100
18. S&P CNX nifty
19. 1996
20. 1978‐79
21. 1996
22. 50
23. 1999
24. 1996
25. 2003
26. Cleared securities
27. Delisting
28. 50 stocks
29. Circuit breaker
30. 21
31. Secondary market
32. listing
33. Arbitrage
34. oddlots
35. jobber
36. Authorised clerk
37. Stags
38. Cornering
39. 21 days
41. commission brokers
42. Speculator
43. Bear
44. Tejiwala
45. very high
46. Price rigging
47. Limit order
48. SHCIL
49. wholesale
50. Grey market
51. Index
52. Index
53. Listed
54. Derivaries
55. European option
56. American option
57. At the money
58. Group B shares
59. Group G shares
60. Group F shares
61. Group T shares
62. Group S share
63. National securities depository Ltd.
64. Central depository services India Ltd.
65. Dematerialization
66. Bull
67. S&P CNX nifty
68. Dematerialization
69. Qualified institutional placement
70. Derivation
71. Placement document
72. Financial engineering
73. Bear
74. VSAT
75. Corporates
76. Grey market
77. 1875
78. Electronic mode
79. Depository
80. Depository
82. Derivatives
83. forward
84. forward
85. option
86. Derivation
87. SWAP
88. Future
89. future
90. Exercise price
91. put option
92. Swaps
93. Exchange
94. Central depository services Ltd.
95. December 12, 1995
96. market capitalization
97. C&P CNX nifty
98. BSE SENSEX
99. Compulsory delisting
100.Voluntrydelisting
101.Margin trading
102.Wash sale
103.Rigging
104.Bull
105.Arbitrageurs
106.1994
107.1995
108.1996
109.1990
110.4
111.Bombay
112.Financial system
113.Finance
114.Capital formation
115.Financial services
116.an indicator
117.longterm capital
118. Securities and Exchange Board of India
119.ordinary
120.Capital Stock
121.debt capital
123.sweet equity shares
124.preferential
125.quasi equity shares
126.debt
127.government
128.securities
129.Gift‐edged securities
130.Public debt office
131.Yankee bonds
132.DFHI
133.Commercial papers
134.Repo rate
135.Subsidiary General Ledger
136.1992
137. Insider trading
138.Identification
139. Non-Banking
Financial Companies
140.SRO
141.Primary market
142.Initial Public Offering
143.Green shoe option
144.Existing shareholders
145.Employees Stock Option Plan
146.Underwriting commission
147.Stock exchange
148.Intangible assets
149.Stock exchange
150.Qualified Institutional Buyer
151.Private placement
152.Money market
153.RBI
154.Money market
155.CP
156.Short term funds
157.Rs. 5 lakh
158.1989
159.7 days to 1 year
160.IBPCs
161.CRISIL P-2
163.Call loans
164.Call money market
165.Green Shoe Option
166.Qualified Institutions placement
167. Bonus Issue
168.Book Building
169.Qualified Institutional Placement
170.FPO
171.Offer for sale
172..5
173.IPO
174.FPO
175.Term money market
176. Prospectus
177.Statement in lieu of prospectus
178.Retail Individual Investor
179.Retail Individual Investor
180.30 days
181.more than 35%
182.TBs
183. ICDs
184.Zero Coupon bond
185.Callable bonds
186.Capital Indexed bonds
187.Primary Dealers
188.SWEAT Equity
189.Money Market Mutual Funds
190.REPOs
191. Taking
advantage of internal price sensitive information for trading
192.Manipulation of prices and misleading statements
193. Open ended
194.Close ended
195.Net Asset Value
196.Growth fund
197.Income fund
198.Equity Linked Savings Scheme
199.3 years
200.SEBI
3 Comments
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