📘 IT Project Management & SDLC - 100 MCQs
(Planning, Execution, Monitoring, Closure + Governance + SDLC)
🔹 IT Project Management (Planning & Governance Focus)
Q1. The primary objective of IT project planning is to:
A. Reduce documentation
B. Define scope, schedule, and resources
C. Eliminate risks
D. Increase budget
Answer: B
Q2. Which document formally authorizes a project?
A. Project Plan
B. Business Case
C. Project Charter
D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Q3. In Railway IT systems, project governance ensures:
A. Coding efficiency
B. Alignment with organizational objectives
C. Hardware procurement
D. Staff recruitment
Answer: B
Q4. Stakeholder analysis is primarily done during:
A. Closure
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Monitoring
Answer: B
Q5. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is used to:
A. Monitor cost
B. Break project into manageable components
C. Allocate funds
D. Audit systems
Answer: B
Q6. Critical Path Method (CPM) helps in:
A. Budgeting
B. Identifying longest duration path
C. Risk elimination
D. Coding
Answer: B
Q7. In governance structure, accountability lies with:
A. Developers
B. Project sponsor
C. End users
D. Auditors
Answer: B
Q8. A RACI matrix defines:
A. Budget allocation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Risk mitigation
D. Coding standards
Answer: B
Q9. Scope creep refers to:
A. Budget increase
B. Uncontrolled change in scope
C. Delay in execution
D. Risk identification
Answer: B
Q10. Baseline in project management refers to:
A. Initial estimate
B. Approved plan for comparison
C. Risk register
D. Resource list
Answer: B
🔹 Execution & Monitoring
Q11. Project execution involves:
A. Planning only
B. Implementing project plan
C. Closing project
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q12. Earned Value Management (EVM) measures:
A. Profit
B. Project performance
C. Coding quality
D. Audit compliance
Answer: B
Q13. Schedule variance indicates:
A. Cost deviation
B. Time deviation
C. Quality issue
D. Risk level
Answer: B
Q14. Cost Performance Index (CPI) less than 1 indicates:
A. Under budget
B. Over budget
C. On schedule
D. No risk
Answer: B
Q15. Monitoring ensures:
A. Project initiation
B. Performance tracking
C. Closure
D. Procurement
Answer: B
Q16. Change control process ensures:
A. No changes
B. Controlled approval of changes
C. Immediate execution
D. Delay
Answer: B
Q17. Risk register contains:
A. Financial data
B. Identified risks and mitigation
C. Coding standards
D. Audit report
Answer: B
Q18. Quality assurance focuses on:
A. Inspection
B. Process improvement
C. Output only
D. Cost reduction
Answer: B
Q19. Issue log is used to track:
A. Budget
B. Problems during execution
C. Stakeholders
D. Risks
Answer: B
Q20. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are used to:
A. Reduce cost
B. Measure success
C. Increase scope
D. Delay project
Answer: B
🔹 Closure Phase
Q21. Project closure involves:
A. Planning
B. Finalizing deliverables
C. Execution
D. Coding
Answer: B
Q22. Lessons learned document is prepared during:
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Closure
D. Monitoring
Answer: C
Q23. Project success is evaluated against:
A. Budget only
B. Scope, time, cost, quality
C. Coding standards
D. Risk register
Answer: B
Q24. Formal acceptance is obtained from:
A. Developers
B. Stakeholders
C. Auditors
D. Vendors
Answer: B
Q25. Post-implementation review ensures:
A. Coding efficiency
B. System effectiveness
C. Budget increase
D. Risk elimination
Answer: B
🔹 Governance Structure
Q26. IT governance framework ensures:
A. Coding
B. Strategic alignment
C. Hardware purchase
D. Staff hiring
Answer: B
Q27. Steering committee is responsible for:
A. Coding
B. Strategic decisions
C. Execution
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q28. Project manager is responsible for:
A. Strategy
B. Execution
C. Audit
D. Policy
Answer: B
Q29. Role of CIO includes:
A. Coding
B. IT strategy
C. Audit
D. Procurement
Answer: B
Q30. Governance ensures:
A. Execution
B. Direction and control
C. Coding
D. Hardware
Answer: B
🔹 SDLC (System Development Life Cycle)
Q31. SDLC begins with:
A. Design
B. Coding
C. Requirement analysis
D. Testing
Answer: C
Q32. Feasibility study includes:
A. Technical
B. Economic
C. Operational
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q33. System design phase defines:
A. Coding
B. Architecture
C. Testing
D. Deployment
Answer: B
Q34. Coding phase converts:
A. Design into code
B. Plan into budget
C. Risk into mitigation
D. Data into info
Answer: A
Q35. Testing phase ensures:
A. Profit
B. Error-free system
C. Budget
D. Scope
Answer: B
Q36. Implementation phase includes:
A. Coding
B. Deployment
C. Testing
D. Planning
Answer: B
Q37. Maintenance phase involves:
A. Bug fixing
B. Updates
C. Enhancements
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q38. Waterfall model is:
A. Iterative
B. Sequential
C. Agile
D. Spiral
Answer: B
Q39. Agile model focuses on:
A. Documentation
B. Flexibility
C. Delay
D. Risk
Answer: B
Q40. Spiral model focuses on:
A. Cost
B. Risk analysis
C. Coding
D. Testing
Answer: B
Q41. V-model emphasizes:
A. Testing at each stage
B. Coding
C. Risk
D. Cost
Answer: A
Q42. Requirement gathering involves:
A. Users
B. Stakeholders
C. Analysts
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q43. System analysis focuses on:
A. Coding
B. Understanding requirements
C. Testing
D. Deployment
Answer: B
Q44. Prototyping helps in:
A. Testing
B. Requirement validation
C. Coding
D. Budgeting
Answer: B
Q45. Integration testing ensures:
A. Individual modules
B. Combined functionality
C. Coding
D. Deployment
Answer: B
Q46. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is done by:
A. Developers
B. Users
C. Auditors
D. Managers
Answer: B
Q47. Documentation is important for:
A. Coding only
B. Maintenance and audit
C. Budget
D. Risk
Answer: B
Q48. Change management in SDLC ensures:
A. No change
B. Controlled changes
C. Immediate coding
D. Delay
Answer: B
Q49. Version control helps in:
A. Cost control
B. Tracking changes
C. Risk
D. Testing
Answer: B
Q50. SDLC ensures:
A. Random development
B. Structured development
C. Delayed delivery
D. High cost
Answer: B
Q51. A project shows SPI = 0.8. This indicates:
A. Ahead of schedule
B. Behind schedule
C. On schedule
D. Over budget
Answer: B
Q52. Cost Variance (CV) = EV – AC. If CV is negative, it implies:
A. Under budget
B. Over budget
C. On budget
D. No deviation
Answer: B
Q53. Which technique is used to identify project risks systematically?
A. Brainstorming
B. Simulation
C. Benchmarking
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q54. Risk probability and impact matrix is used for:
A. Budgeting
B. Risk prioritization
C. Coding
D. Testing
Answer: B
Q55. In Railway IT projects, vendor risk is categorized under:
A. Technical risk
B. External risk
C. Internal risk
D. Financial risk
Answer: B
Q56. A contingency reserve is used for:
A. Known risks
B. Unknown risks
C. Profit
D. Budget increase
Answer: A
Q57. Management reserve is used for:
A. Planned risks
B. Unforeseen risks
C. Coding errors
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q58. Which document captures identified risks and responses?
A. Project Charter
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Log
D. WBS
Answer: B
Q59. A milestone represents:
A. Task
B. Deliverable
C. Significant event
D. Budget
Answer: C
Q60. Float (slack) in CPM indicates:
A. Delay
B. Flexibility in schedule
C. Cost variance
D. Risk
Answer: B
🔹 Execution & Performance Control
Q61. Earned Value (EV) represents:
A. Planned value
B. Actual cost
C. Work performed value
D. Budget
Answer: C
Q62. If CPI = 1, project is:
A. Over budget
B. Under budget
C. On budget
D. Delayed
Answer: C
Q63. Configuration management ensures:
A. Budget control
B. Integrity of system components
C. Coding speed
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q64. Change request approval is handled by:
A. Project team
B. Change Control Board
C. Users
D. Auditors
Answer: B
Q65. Variance analysis helps in:
A. Coding
B. Performance tracking
C. Risk elimination
D. Planning
Answer: B
Q66. A defect log records:
A. Risks
B. Errors/bugs
C. Budget
D. Stakeholders
Answer: B
Q67. Resource leveling is done to:
A. Reduce cost
B. Balance resource allocation
C. Increase scope
D. Delay project
Answer: B
Q68. Fast tracking means:
A. Delaying tasks
B. Parallel execution of tasks
C. Increasing cost
D. Reducing scope
Answer: B
Q69. Crashing is used to:
A. Reduce cost
B. Reduce project duration
C. Increase risk
D. Increase scope
Answer: B
Q70. Quality control focuses on:
A. Process
B. Output
C. Budget
D. Risk
Answer: B
🔹 Governance & Roles (Advanced)
Q71. Segregation of duties ensures:
A. Efficiency
B. Fraud prevention
C. Coding
D. Speed
Answer: B
Q72. IT steering committee ensures:
A. Coding
B. Strategic alignment
C. Testing
D. Deployment
Answer: B
Q73. Accountability in governance implies:
A. Shared responsibility
B. Clear ownership
C. No responsibility
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q74. Responsibility assignment matrix ensures:
A. Budget control
B. Role clarity
C. Risk reduction
D. Coding
Answer: B
Q75. Internal audit in IT governance focuses on:
A. Coding
B. Compliance and controls
C. Budget
D. Execution
Answer: B
Q76. IT governance maturity is assessed through:
A. Profit
B. Capability levels
C. Cost
D. Coding
Answer: B
Q77. Role of system owner includes:
A. Coding
B. Business accountability
C. Testing
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q78. Data owner is responsible for:
A. Coding
B. Data accuracy and security
C. Budget
D. Audit
Answer: B
Q79. IT governance ensures compliance with:
A. Policies
B. Laws
C. Standards
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q80. Decision rights in governance define:
A. Budget
B. Authority levels
C. Coding
D. Testing
Answer: B
🔹 SDLC (Advanced & Analytical)
Q81. Feasibility analysis includes:
A. Technical feasibility
B. Economic feasibility
C. Operational feasibility
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Q82. In SDLC, functional requirements define:
A. System behavior
B. Performance
C. Security
D. Hardware
Answer: A
Q83. Non-functional requirements include:
A. Features
B. Performance
C. Inputs
D. Outputs
Answer: B
Q84. Black box testing focuses on:
A. Internal code
B. Output behavior
C. Coding
D. Design
Answer: B
Q85. White box testing focuses on:
A. Functionality
B. Internal logic
C. Output
D. Users
Answer: B
Q86. Regression testing ensures:
A. New bugs fixed
B. Old functionality intact
C. Performance
D. Security
Answer: B
Q87. Beta testing is done by:
A. Developers
B. End users
C. Auditors
D. Managers
Answer: B
Q88. System integration ensures:
A. Individual modules
B. Combined working
C. Coding
D. Testing
Answer: B
Q89. Agile methodology uses:
A. Waterfall
B. Iterations
C. Linear approach
D. Sequential steps
Answer: B
Q90. Scrum is a type of:
A. Waterfall
B. Agile framework
C. Spiral model
D. V-model
Answer: B
Q91. Sprint duration in Scrum is:
A. Fixed short cycle
B. Long cycle
C. Random
D. Undefined
Answer: A
Q92. Product backlog contains:
A. Bugs
B. Requirements
C. Budget
D. Risk
Answer: B
Q93. DevOps integrates:
A. Development and operations
B. Finance and audit
C. Testing and coding
D. Planning and audit
Answer: A
Q94. Continuous integration ensures:
A. Frequent code merging
B. Delayed integration
C. No testing
D. Manual process
Answer: A
Q95. Continuous deployment ensures:
A. Automatic release
B. Manual release
C. Testing
D. Coding
Answer: A
Q96. SDLC documentation helps in:
A. Coding
B. Maintenance
C. Audit
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
Q97. Data migration occurs during:
A. Design
B. Implementation
C. Testing
D. Planning
Answer: B
Q98. Parallel run means:
A. New system only
B. Old and new system together
C. No system
D. Testing
Answer: B
Q99. Cutover strategy involves:
A. Gradual change
B. Immediate switch
C. No change
D. Testing
Answer: B
Q100. SDLC objective is to:
A. Increase cost
B. Deliver quality system efficiently
C. Delay project
D. Reduce scope
Answer: B
Join WhatsApp Channel
No comments:
Post a Comment